I see, so when we get an EE we BM and reverse until a fail safe event or another EE which would give us another BM.
After an EE we get P1 on that EE bar for A bands and fail safe events so we BM and use that bar's volume for P1. Other bands and PP's we assign P1 volume on the bar following after BM and start measuring.
BO,T1 is a BO from RTL set by P1 (or P1s) and T1 (or T1s) and the BO bar is immediately assigned a P1? Or is it that we get a P1 and T1 as soon as we see a BO of TL.
This part confuses me. When we have P1 and T1, don't we HAVE to assign next peak P2 or an EE?
Oh boy I just got confused even more lol.
So progression is P1, T1, P2, T2P, T2F, P3,etc. with EEs in between to start over from P1.
What is the direction of the bar for each? I think that's the part that I'm not getting at the moment. I thought Jack first explained it like the gaussian terms first which makes P1 an end of a trend and start of a new one that builds T1 to P2 for X2X part of the gaussian followed by T2P to T2F non dom traverse to P3 for continuation of dominant trend completing x2x2y2x gaussian.
For simplicity, let's say we get P1, T1, P2, T2P without any internals or other fail safe and/or EEs in between, should the bars be translating in the same direction? i.e. if P1 starts a BM long, T1 = XB, P2=XB, T2P = XB?
Thanks in advance!
After an EE we get P1 on that EE bar for A bands and fail safe events so we BM and use that bar's volume for P1. Other bands and PP's we assign P1 volume on the bar following after BM and start measuring.
BO,T1 is a BO from RTL set by P1 (or P1s) and T1 (or T1s) and the BO bar is immediately assigned a P1? Or is it that we get a P1 and T1 as soon as we see a BO of TL.
This part confuses me. When we have P1 and T1, don't we HAVE to assign next peak P2 or an EE?
Oh boy I just got confused even more lol.
So progression is P1, T1, P2, T2P, T2F, P3,etc. with EEs in between to start over from P1.
What is the direction of the bar for each? I think that's the part that I'm not getting at the moment. I thought Jack first explained it like the gaussian terms first which makes P1 an end of a trend and start of a new one that builds T1 to P2 for X2X part of the gaussian followed by T2P to T2F non dom traverse to P3 for continuation of dominant trend completing x2x2y2x gaussian.
For simplicity, let's say we get P1, T1, P2, T2P without any internals or other fail safe and/or EEs in between, should the bars be translating in the same direction? i.e. if P1 starts a BM long, T1 = XB, P2=XB, T2P = XB?
Thanks in advance!
