Quote from Tsing Tao:
The only issue with letting states have the ability on this subject is that one could buy an assault rifle in Wyoming and drive to Delaware to shoot someone with it.
Look, there is an established way to amend the Constitution. If that process yields no guns, or a ban on a a particular type of weapon, then so be it. The Constitution was followed. Apart from that, any suggestions that it is archaic and no longer relevant is academic.
That's a good point regarding state by state regulation. Uniform regulation is the only thing that makes sense to me. It is also clear that amendment, as difficult as that could be, could lead to definitive rule on firearm ownership, at least for now.
Re the statement: "The Constitution was followed." I have to ask was it? And I think it was, and it wasn't.
I doubt that there was much consideration given to the advancement of weapon design when the 2nd Amendment was drafted. The purpose of the amendment is clearly stated. It was because "A well regulated Militia [was] necessary to the security of a free State."
So why would the drafters of the amendment have been concerned with future advancements in "arms," which at that time meant hand-held muzzle loaders and single shot pistols? The answer is, they would not have been. They would have been O.K. with fully automatic assault rifles, because their purpose was to be able to raise a "well regulated militia... to execute the laws of the union, suppress insurrections and repel invasions..." The purpose of a militia, as intended in the 18th century, is made crystal clear in Article 1, Section 8 of the Constitution. The meaning would have been exactly the same at the drafting of the second amendment.
A militia, in the 18th century, was a part-time army, just as it is today. Our militia today consists of the National Guard, and no one is suggesting the National Guard should be limited to muzzle loaders.
Furthermore the second amendment does not speak at all to the question of owning firearms for the purpose of sport. That is a strictly modern day issue to be determined by modern day law, so long as that law does not violate the Constitution. The second amendment says that you and I can keep (own) firearms and have them on our person (bear them, and presumably use them for any reasonable purpose)
because they might be needed to raise a militia .
The amendment cannot be divorced from the 18th century need to raise a militia. And this is where we are confounded by the fact that we have a militia -- The National Guard. Hence we have not only the issue of how the definition of arms may have changed over the centuries, but also the issue of how militias may have changed. I maintain that the drafters of the amendment would have been perfectly OK with the National Guard (our militia) shouldering AK-47's and missile launchers, but rather shocked to hear of anyone wanting them for hunting.
Furthermore, I can't see any support in the second amendment for the often expressed idea that it was intended to protect the citizenry from a tyrannical government. On the contrary, it was the raising of a militia to protect the government from rebellion that was used as the justification for the second amendment. There is nothing, nothing whatsoever!, in that amendment that suggests that the citizens were to be allowed to own firearms in case the government got too oppressive, and the citizens therefore were moved to rise up against the government. This is a kind of nonsense we are being subjected to by some in the gun lobby today.
I am not saying that you might not be very glad to have an AK-47 under the bed in case your government wants to take your liberties away. I'm saying the intent of the second amendment, as written, was just the opposite. The government wanted you and your muzzle loader on their side.
So now we have a little problem on our hands as far as the courts might ultimately be concerned. 1) the purpose of the second amendment was to facilitate the raising of a militia. We have a militia already. It is called the National Guard.
2) A literal interpretation of the second amendment might presuppose an expansion of "arms" to any weapon useful in the raising of a militia, that expanded definition of "arms" is already embodied in our National Guard.
Have the private gun owners of America been left out in the cold, so to speak, by the second amendment. Does it, or does it not apply to them? It may have applied to them at one time, before we had a National Guard. But does it still apply?
Are those falling back on the second amendment to protect their right to own guns designed specifically to kill people, assuming that "arms" in the second amendment means any weapon designed to be useful to a militia, going to to lose this battle in the courts, because their arms are not needed to raise a militia. Does the second amendment apply to those with guns that have nothing whatsoever to do with raising a militia?
The constitution is obsolescent, and the second amendment is obsolete. This is the current problem we must resolve. We can if cool heads prevail.