I know it depends and varies, but would you say in general, when you trade 1 contract without averaging down, that your risk / reward ratio is something like 2:1? Maybe even 3:1? Thanks in advance!
First let me say in RR I use the first R as the reward number and the second R as the risk number. Others TRADERS do the opposite. From your wording of the concept I am assuming you do the risk number first then the reward next?
So, read my numbers I quote below as reward to risk.
My initial RR is upside down in probably 90% of the trades, however, my ACTUAL RR after the trade is over is often 2:1, 4:1, even 10:1 or 12:1 on occasion. The way I calculate my actual RR is after I enter a trade how much did it go against me, plus 1 tick, before I exit with a profit. In other words, that is what actually happened. So, had I placed my initial SL at that point (i.e. the actual adverse movement against my position) then with the 1 tick added my SL would have been hit.
I use an initial PA SL that usually is upside down because I am a scalper of 1 to 8 points (small profits vs swinging) and my initial SL has to be based upon PA and volatility of the moment to give the trade room to work. I want that initial larger (usually larger) SL in there in case some event happens that cause the market to plunge or surge thus protecting my account against huge losses. In summary, the initial SL is usually upside down RR, and is used to give the trade room to work, and used to protect my account from catastrophic price action.
When I do get a very good ACTUAL reward to risk say like 8:1, 10:1 or more it is usually because I got in very early on a BO, just before it took off, thus my position experienced very little adverse movement. Sometimes just a tick or two adverse movement. Or it can be because my PA reading was spot on for that particular trade. I have days where my entries are not so good as my read is off so I too am compensating by using the usually larger PA/volatility SL and that gives the trade room to work.
For example: in trading Trading Ranges I will start shorting in the top 1/3 WITHOUT necessarily waiting for any particular trading signal bar. My initial will be a wats outside of the top of the range. How far outside is a product of the present volatility. And I will scale in or add to my position if price moves against me after my first entry. If my PA read was very accurate it may head south in the range right after my entry and with very little adverse movement before going in my favor. If not, it may go against my initial position and I will add to it. Why! Because I know most BO’s of a TR fail so I fade the BO even if that means averaging down. And I use a wide enough stoploss.
But depending on “how” price is doing “what” it is doing when in the top 1/3 of the TR I may look for a signal bar and may not take the first signal but wait for a second signal to make my short entry. Hopefully I am not being confusing here? Often I wait for no signal bar but just start shorting in the top 1/3 or I may wait for a signal bar if the PA at the moment tells me it is better to wait. However, that said I more often do the former as opposed to the latter.
In BO’s if I get in later then my necessity my initial SL is bigger because it has to be at the bottom of the BO (if a bull BO), opposite if a bear BO. So depending on “when” I get in on the BO it can be a very large INITIAL RISK but often ends up being a very small ACTUAL RISK.
I have gone the long way around to answer your question so to answer it directly: in your wording of RR (i.e. risk to reward) yes often my INITIAL risk will be 2:1, 3:1, 4:1: even 6:1 depending on where I manage to get in on the move. That is , I may be risking
initially (emphasis on initially) twice the amount or three times the amount to my profit target. But My PT is hazy. 1 to 8 points (not set amount) when I take my profit depends mostly on PA and momentum once I am in the money.
In short, I rarely consider any specific RR. They are both contingent of PA and volatility. I just place them (SL) and take them (PT) as I see what price HAS done (for SL placement and “how” price is acting for profit taking be it 1 point or 8 points or in between. PA and volatility dictate to me my SL placement and my PT point. I never use a set RR as I cannot dictate to the market what it can or should do. I know traders want the good math. Good reward to risk so they will backtest trying to find good entries and exits that render good math. They will work for a while then no longer work. Then they optimize which may cause things to work a little bit longer, then optimization stops working. The final step is they then abandon the strategy.
As a discretionary trader my approach to the markets is different. I let the market dictate to me or “show” me where I should place my SL and when I best grab my profit. I no longer approach it with a set RR or PT. There are 81 5m bars in the ES session. Movement takes place on every bar. That means money can be made or lost on most any bar. But some are more conducive than others! And institutions move the markets. Their pressures on the market for price patterns…..triangles…flags…trading ranges…channels…etc. These patterns existed in charts 80 years ago and they are still here in todays charts even though 70% or more of the trading in done by computers. That just tells me people write the programs and the programs behave they way the people conceptualize. It may be computers taking the trades but people designed the computer programs!
So there you go! I just made a short story long!