Quote from hank rollins:
i don't believe your formulations are applicable to the issue at hand.
applying basic statistical measures like the serial correlation coefficient or the goodman independent time series test to most any market series, a trend is not in evidence--even in those cases were a MA indicates trending behavior. the tests show randomness in the data regardless of a "visual" illusionary trend.
You can either apply the accepted tests to the market data, or continue to believe whatever you wish.
I would love to see any data that refutes the above--- it would sure make my life easier
best wishes,
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Hi hank,
What were the data vars you tested? Were they the right vars for determining "trend". I guess, one first needs to ask themselves exactly what it is they need to measure. Is the var applicable. What, if any, multivariate conditions exist. Which of them are essential (primary). Which are redundant or previously influenced. IMO, establish the primary.
Was your data continuous, or discrete ...by (those silly) "bars"?
Was the scattered distribution skewed... clustered... were there outliers... was it at all non-linear... etc. If you encountered any of these conditions, the correlation coefficient maybe irrelevant.
The measure I gave is correct, amongst other applicable versions. Calculating statistics though...correctly, is tricky. And believe me, I'm only a studying practioner.
One of my recent posts (probability thread) links to a good stats learning program for wrapping one's mind around stats, if anyone's interested.
Ktm'r