As most US forex traders already know, in 2016 a new SEC / dodd-frank rule prohibited US brokers regulated by the SEC to do forex with non-eligible contract persons (ECP); that is, no US forex clients with assets under USD 10 million. Interactive Brokers is SEC regulated and was thus affected by this. This did not affect FX brokers that do not deal in securities and are regulated by the CFTC alone. And it did not affect non-US forex traders.
I am a London based full-time trader. I use Interactive Brokers. Two-thirds of my business is forex. The remainder is futures, ETFs and sovereign bonds. I have a complex Python/SQL/R based system that interacts with IB for data gathering and statistical analyses. I'm balls deep with IB. But I am moving to the US for personal reasons and I shall soon be a "US person". This represents a problem, and I am facing the following alternatives for trading forex:
1) Keep my trading business outside of the US, undeclared - This for me is an absolute no go.
2) Increase trading capital to USD 10 million - Not realistic.
3) Move all forex to forex futures - This is a feasible option, though far from ideal for multiple reasons. Spot trumps futures.
4) Move my FX trading to FXCM or Gain Capital - Far from ideal due to coding integration and splitting trading capital between accounts (I do need IB regardless for etfs and bonds).
5) Setup a BVI for forex trading - Would cost extra time and money (setup/maintenance costs, cumbersome US tax forms). But would it work? I'll find out! I'm not sure if a BVI with one US person as owner qualifies as non-US client.
6) State I have assets over USD 10 million to be recognized as an eligible contract person - Lying is never good, but would it be illegal? It may very well be 100% legal. The SEC rule regulating this (17 CFR Part 240) states SEC regulated brokers are prohibited from doing retail forex transactions with non-eligible contract participants. But I have found nothing indicating that falsely claiming to have assets over 10 million is illegal in any way. And I have read hundreds of pages of legal documents looking for it.
I would greatly welcome any insights into #5 and #6, particularly the latter, refraining please from righteous statements regarding right vs wrong. This is about legal or illegal, not right vs wrong. If legal its OK, if illegal it is not.
Thank you all.
I am a London based full-time trader. I use Interactive Brokers. Two-thirds of my business is forex. The remainder is futures, ETFs and sovereign bonds. I have a complex Python/SQL/R based system that interacts with IB for data gathering and statistical analyses. I'm balls deep with IB. But I am moving to the US for personal reasons and I shall soon be a "US person". This represents a problem, and I am facing the following alternatives for trading forex:
1) Keep my trading business outside of the US, undeclared - This for me is an absolute no go.
2) Increase trading capital to USD 10 million - Not realistic.
3) Move all forex to forex futures - This is a feasible option, though far from ideal for multiple reasons. Spot trumps futures.
4) Move my FX trading to FXCM or Gain Capital - Far from ideal due to coding integration and splitting trading capital between accounts (I do need IB regardless for etfs and bonds).
5) Setup a BVI for forex trading - Would cost extra time and money (setup/maintenance costs, cumbersome US tax forms). But would it work? I'll find out! I'm not sure if a BVI with one US person as owner qualifies as non-US client.
6) State I have assets over USD 10 million to be recognized as an eligible contract person - Lying is never good, but would it be illegal? It may very well be 100% legal. The SEC rule regulating this (17 CFR Part 240) states SEC regulated brokers are prohibited from doing retail forex transactions with non-eligible contract participants. But I have found nothing indicating that falsely claiming to have assets over 10 million is illegal in any way. And I have read hundreds of pages of legal documents looking for it.
I would greatly welcome any insights into #5 and #6, particularly the latter, refraining please from righteous statements regarding right vs wrong. This is about legal or illegal, not right vs wrong. If legal its OK, if illegal it is not.
Thank you all.