Agreed. This is standard economics.
The reason you observe this, in theory at least, is that as GDP increases the amount of base money and credit money in an economy can be increased without causing inflation.* The underlying assumption is that no one will produce that for which there is not a sufficient market, which suggests demand will grow in consort with GDP.
But it leaves invalid, for countries that issue debt in their own currency, your assertion that "...if [sovereign debt] becomes to high the governments ability to pay the maturity payments dwindles and they have to borrow from the IMF." This is false. However these countries, like the U.S. and the U.K., could at some high value of issued debt find that servicing interest on the debt, which is simply a form of non-discretionary spending, becomes inconveniently high compared to the level of desired discretionary spending. These countries can retire as much debt as they see fit, Just as Japan recently retired ~ 50% of their "debt". In fact, the existence of a Japan invalidates your argument as to so-called "debt" of countries that issue debt in their own currency.
If you want to discuss these topics intelligently, I'm afraid there is only one thing for you: read the work of the modern economists. You seem stuck in the neoclassical period.
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*We know that although Friedman's dictum that inflation is always and everywhere caused by too much money chasing too few goods, that is only the immediate cause. One has to ask why is there too much money chasing too few goods? The answers to that question are myriad!!!