Quote from Mav88:
Think about the bizarre and backdoor way this all went down, ACA passed with reconciliation, and then survived with an extremely tortured bit of law by Roberts. Roberts' theory was alone, the court by 8-1 did not concur with his reasoning. This law fails if it isn't a tax, Roberts was clear on that since he sided with conservatives on commerce.
The only people I have seen defend him here are piezoe and Ricter here, albeit lamely. This is not the way a landmark piece of legislation should become law of the land, but I don't expect the left to care since after the ends justify the means in religion....
Roberts said that it isn't a mandate when all you have to do is pay a non-criminal penalty collected by the IRS, therefore it is a tax. Roberts also said the penalty must be reasonable in order to be a tax (so who gets to say what is reasonable?). Therefore having the city cut my grass is simply a tax (a penalty for non action on a mandatory behavior collected by a gov't)... I'm starting to believe the medication theory.
Let's say for the sake of argument that this is a tax, or even as piezoe calls it, a tax deduction if I do what they say I should do. Then congress never voted on it as such, and it is illegal.
Hey Mav,
Thanks for posting; I totally agree. Since the ruling of the SCOTUS on the ACA, the thought occured to me that something is not quite right about the ruling. The law was ruled upon in a different form than what was voted upon by congress; and, more importantly, what was told to the American people. That being the case, is it not reasonable to think, since the law was technically changed by interpretation from its original form, it needs to go back to congress to be approved with the change before it can be implemented?
Justice Kennedy gives rise to this question when, as quoted from the WSJ: Reading a joint dissent from the bench, Justice Kennedy said the majority engaged in âvast judicial overreachingâ and decided âto save a statute Congress did not write.â