Take this hypothetical example
Say that a stock is at $21.25. A hedge fund has some inside info, that a bad announcment is coming out that the public does not know, and the stock is expected to drop a $1.25 to $20.00
Say the $20.00 call is trading at $1.75 and
Say the $22.50 put is also trading at $1.75
Both strikes are equidistant from the current stock price.
If you bought the $22.50 put, and the stock is at $20.00 at expiration, you make $.75
If you sold the $20 call and the stock was at $20.00 at expiration, you'd make $1.75
The difference between the two is that you SOLD time value, instead of buying it.
So we already know the fund is bearish, and they KNOW the stock will go to $20. It is in their best interest to sell the $20 call, which makes the open interest on the $20 increase.
Because the open interest of the $20 calls increases, it does not mean that the person buying/selling is bullish.
Let me know if what I am saying isn't clear.