Quote from spindr0:
How do you differentiate the speculative buyer of 10K calls at the ask from the hedge fund buying 10K calls at the ask to protect 1 million short shares ??
I have no idea, however take these scenarios. Lets assume the stock is going to move $3.40 either way after earnings (The estimated cost of buying a $30 Feb straddle on 1/22 @ 1 PM )
Option A
10K of calls traded at 1:00 PM - 1:03 PM EST. I'm assuming this is what he was referring to. Stock price at this time was 29.15 . The calls cost 1.30 , but if you were the fund that was short, you'd still have to go up to $30 to "stop the bleeding" with your calls. Add that .85 to the 1.30 , and you've got $2.10, and the cost of holding into earnings and using options at best would cost you $1.30 per share, and at worst cost you $2.10 per share.
Possible results :
Stock pops $3.40 , you lose $2.10 per share
Stock drops $3.40, you make $2.70 per share ($4 profit - 1.30)
Risk to reward ratio : .77
Option B
Other option would be to cover the shares ahead of earnings. Say hypothetically that the buying pressure of 1 million shares causes an increase of $1, so you lose $1 per share (this assumes all shares are covered at an average of $30.15 per share). You've still spent less than the $1.30 cost of the call. (Let the record show I've never done enough volume to move a stock, so I don't know how high the stock would go if you purchased 1 million shares)
Stock pops after earnings : Lose $1
Stock drops after earnings : Lose $1
(outcome is the same b/c you've covered before earnings)
Risk to reward : Not really one in this case, no reward.
Option C :
Outright speculation based on insider info or some other sort of information.
Stock pops $3.40 : Make $2.10 per share ($29.15 (stock price) + $3.40 (gain from pop) - $1.30 (cost of option) = $1.25. I'm only counting intrinsic value, time value might add $.20 per share perhaps, for a total of $1.45
Stock drops $3.40 : Lose $1.30
Risk to reward : .89
Any insight or ideas others could provide would be much welcomed.