On 10-case geometry and beyond

The following chart illustrates the concept of interday degapping. There is a continuity to RTH that exists. It's character is distinct from the extended hours. Turns and trends unfold in a sequence of events. In this particular carryover context there was a progression in Trend Types A to B to C to D. Trends develop in an irreversible manner until they end.

One always knows that they know with every bar, turns are anticipated a turn ahead.


ESU8-5m-170706-9 stitched carryover debrief.png
 
JamesRoscoe said:
Thanks much Sprout. So we can only have a true BO if there is close to the right side of the rtl with lower volume.
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AND T1 must be present in the sequence prior to close. That's a true BO,T1 which is a volume event in the language of RDBMS.
A BO is referencing the price pane as price clears an established rtl in the language of SCT. A true BO in this context is FBO = false with increasing volume.
 
A couple of what I thought to be interesting snips from today.

7/11/18, NQ, 2 min.

1) PP1a and PP1b ... I havn't seen many PP1a
2) P3P... It's likely mis-ID'd, but I think my reasoning was sound. I say mis-ID because I did not have 3 T2p/f rotations, AND the T2f was EQUAL to T1. No matter... in combo with containers the sequence clearly ended and BO.

The other thing I thought interesting in both snips... the actual VTP labels were in agreement with containers. EE trading is segment-based, and VTP is sequence applicable to all fractals, containers, and gaussians. Bar-by-bar is not able to recognize a full sequence on all fractals or containers. Bar-by-bar is too granular for larger containers, and not granular enough for smaller containers. These 2 snips were just right.

PP1x.jpg



P3P.jpg


Almost forgot... I am intentionally not using gizmo BOT1... the reason is Sierrachart... I am expecting to be able to automate VTP annotation, but in SC, sloped lines are too much of a pain. SC is not OOP based like C# where everything is it's own thing. I would have to program and maintain all coordinates of a sloped line to determine an intersection or cross with price bar. BMREV is different in that BM is a Hz line. No need to maintain coordinates, other than a Y-axis position.
 
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Sprout said:
The PP2 assigns a P1 on next. Next is a BM,rev. The following T1 in the series is a PP3. PP1 completes the pattern.
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1) P1 is already (currently) assigned on Next after PP2
2) I don't understand your analysis with the BMRev. I don't see a BM, let alone a BMRev. If PP2 was BM'd, it would have been on the low. Also from a trading standpoint, if BM and BMrev exists, it would not have been a "stay on the right side of the market" trade. Precisely what I deem as "fishing".
3) The following T1 as a PP3, OK, and PP1 on completion. Agree.

Debrief with small, interesting snips is the way to go!!
Thanks
 
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tiddlywinks said:
1) P1 is already (currently) assigned on Next after PP2
2) I don't understand your analysis with the BMRev. I don't see a BM, let alone a BMRev. If PP2 was BM'd, it would have been on the low. Also from a trading standpoint, if BM and BMrev exists, it would not have been a "stay on the right side of the market" trade. Precisely what I deem as "fishing".
3) The following T1 as a PP3, OK, and PP1 on completion. Agree.

Debrief with small, interesting snips is the way to go!!
Thanks
More...

All EE’s are ends of trend segments and assign a P1. Failsafes and Aband are assigned the bar that the EE was on, all others on the next bar. PP2 assigns the P1 however the bias is to reverse. So the next bar after PP2 gets a BM. To clarify, it’s the next bar after the BM bar that is the reverse. It’s easier to see with FS and Aband EEs.
Since it did not reverse and instead continued, the new BM was penetrated with BM,rev.

The three tick rule would help here by it’s negative. Normally one would sweep profits three ticks off an extreme. In this case, the fact that the BM bar closed near it’s high was a “negative” therefore informing that continuation was on deck. If1/If2 apa would have also been informative on this bar.

It’ll make a difference when IDing turns and trend types.
When the turns are linked to EE’s, then the magic of the progression of trend types will come into view and a greater facility to receive the market’s continuing offer. That and a substantial reduction in ‘stress’ in that one realizes “one knows that they know” what the next turns are setting up to be.
 
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Here's one of Jack's posted charts, that has that sequence of PP2->BM,rev->PP3.

In this particular case, the PP2 and BM,rev were hold-thru's from the reversal on the BM,rev after Ac - hvbo.

edit:
As I look at the chart, my mistake. BM's are placed on EE's not on the P1 assignment. So my commentary on the previous post is incorrect. The PP2 gets the BM, the assigned P1 is the BM,rev.

My bad, too early to post without coffee.


1-13-2014 3-07-42 pm close annotated.jpg
 
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Sprout said:
All EE’s are ends of trend segments and assign a P1. Failsafes and Aband are assigned the bar that the EE was on, all others on the next bar. PP2 assigns the P1 however the bias is to reverse. So the next bar after PP2 gets a BM. To clarify, it’s the next bar after the BM bar that is the reverse. It’s easier to see with FS and Aband EEs.
Since it did not reverse and instead continued, the new BM was penetrated with BM,rev.

The three tick rule would help here by it’s negative. Normally one would sweep profits three ticks off an extreme. In this case, the fact that the BM bar closed near it’s high was a “negative” therefore informing that continuation was on deck. If1/If2 apa would have also been informative on this bar.

It’ll make a difference when IDing turns and trend types.
When the turns are linked to EE’s, then the magic of the progression of trend types will come into view and a greater facility to receive the market’s continuing offer. That and a substantial reduction in ‘stress’ in that one realizes “one knows that they know” what the next turns are setting up to be.
More...


"So the next bar after PP2 gets a BM." <- Incorrect

All EE's get a BM on that bar. It's the assigning of the P1 that fluctuates on context.
 
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