Ok, let's dissect the first link, first.
In the first one, it references a Boston University study - but strangely doesn't link to it so I can't go into the study itself and must rely on the text for general information. But ok, let's see.
The team took state-level homicide rates from a database from the Center for Disease Control and Prevention. Since there is no survey at the state level that measures gun ownership, the researchers estimated these numbers by looking at a commonly used proxy: the number of suicides by firearms. Researchers use this statistic because the ratio of gun suicides to all suicides has been shown to correlate strongly with surveys that measure gun ownership.
A commonly used method of determining gun ownership is to look at the number of suicides by firearms? Really? That's the first I've heard of it. And researches use this statistic because:
gun suicides
-------------- = correlates strongly with surveys that measure gun ownership
all suicides
How can it correlate strongly with a survey that measures gun ownership when there is no survey at the state level that measures gun ownership? Isn't the premise of the article that States with More Guns have Higher Homicides? Not that I disagree with this premise, of course, because it should be obvious that
the more guns there are, the higher the overall homicide rate is. That's
never been in question. The question is whether more
legally owned firearms deters crime. This article doesn't address that at all. Mine did.
This type of study can't prove causation, and the researchers noted that it is theoretically possible that people who live in states with higher levels of firearm homicide are more likely to purchase guns.
Ah, well I didn't have to continue because the article self-destructed. I'll review the next link of yours in the next post. In case, by some miracle, you'll actually start debating some of the "facts" and sources.