I was reading up on bonds on investopedia. This is from their site:
"
The Timing of a Bond's Cash Flows and Interest Rates
The timing of a bond's cash flows is important. This includes the bond's term to maturity. If market participants believe that there is higher inflation on the horizon, interest rates and
bond yields will rise (and prices will decrease) to compensate for the loss of the purchasing power of future cash flows. Those bonds with the longest cash flows will see their yields rise and prices fall the most. This should be intuitive if you think about a present value calculation - when you change the discount rate used on a stream of future cash flows, the longer until a cash flow is received, the more its present value is affected. The bond market has a measure of
price change relative to interest rate changes; this important bond metric is known as
duration.
"
Does that mean that if investors perceive inflation on the horizon, that they sell their long term government bonds? Also is it correct to assume short term interest rate they mean any US government bond less than 5 years, while long term more than 10 years?
I also didn't understand this paragraph:
"For example, a change in short-term interest rates that does not affect long-term interest rates will have little effect on a long-term bond's price and yield. However, a change (or no change when the market perceives that one is needed) in short-term interest rates that affects long-term interest rates can greatly affect a long-term bond's price and yield. Put simply, changes in short-term interest rates have more of an effect on short-term bonds than long-term bonds, and changes in long-term interest rates have an effect on long-term bonds, but not short-term bonds."
What is a change in short term rates that does not affect long term rates? Are we talking about trading related bond price changes or central bank decisions here? And what is a change in short term interest rates that affects long term rates (Is that the central bank decision)?