I read your answer, and I think I actually got it. It makes sense. No causation, but risk aversion driving both. 4 pages of bla bla for a simple answer.
I read your answer, and I think I actually got it. It makes sense. No causation, but risk aversion driving both. 4 pages of bla bla for a simple answer.
I have often wondered about this. I am not a bond trader. I'm guessing you are, as you seem knowledgeable re bond markets.The traditional dynamic is very simple:
- Japanese savers (either directly or indirectly, through their pension funds and banks) demand bonds
- the BoJ has taken a lot of JGBs out of circulation through QE
- furthermore, global QE in other places has also had an effect of reducing the availability of 'safe', high-quality liquid sovereign bonds
- treasuries, therefore, are in demand from the Japanese (and other) savers, who cannot buy their own bonds
Emphatically, the author of the ZH article isn't actually making this point. They are making a simple error of assuming causation where there is only correlation present. Specifically, both USDJPY and treasuries are sensitive to the degree of risk aversion and fear in the mkt, especially now. This common "fear factor" is driving both. That's all there is to it.
In is my none too humble opinion that a good working knowledge of basic macroeconomic principles is one of the keys to successful trading and investing except perhaps short term trading, where it is not so important, but still helpful.... the subject of macroeconomics is new to me, and it is a tough subject, ...
Crowding out of private investors from the govt bond mkt is one of the ways QE operates, in fact. This is the so-called "portfolio channel". Whether this is specifically the stated intention of the CB depends on the program.I have often wondered about this. I am not a bond trader. I'm guessing you are, as you seem knowledgeable re bond markets.
Here is what I have wondered about. Is it that Japanese savers can't find the bonds to buy or is it that they don't want them with interest rates so low.
During QE, the Central Bank (Fed or BOJ, as the case may be) is a ready buyer on the secondary market. But I am having trouble understanding why they would want to intentionally crowd out other buyers, particularly other domestic buyers, or is that just an unintended consequence?
Naturally, during contractionary phases the demand for bonds may decline so that if the Treasury embarks on a program of issuing new bonds to fund domestic stimulus spending there may be upward pressure on interest rates, exactly the wrong thing in a recession or deflationary period! With the Central Bank in the secondary market as a ready buyer, the Treasury can count on there being a buyer without having to offer higher yields. In fact, as we've seen, rates can be held very low; yet at the same time, would the Central bank want to crowd competing domestic buyers out of the secondary market? I would think not. Ideally, other buyers are needed so that the price discovery mechanism can function --but I wonder how well it functions during massive QE.
It would seem to me, assuming I am correct in my thinking, that the Central bank would just as soon buy fewer bonds in preference to money from bank deposits being used to purchase Treasures, as the later would also have the net effect of moving idle money into the economy. The later would reduce cash savings and increase savings in the form of bonds, albeit bonds outside direct control of the central bank.
In an attempt to try and make some sense of this, I might be able summarize by saying that to me it would seem the ideal is to have the central bank step in just to the extent needed to absorb the additional bonds sold by the treasury to finance expanded government spending on stimulus, while holding interest rates very low, but no more.
What is your thinking here?
Here is what I have wondered about. Is it that Japanese savers can't find the bonds to buy or is it that they don't want them with interest rates so low.
During QE, the Central Bank (Fed or BOJ, as the case may be) is a ready buyer on the secondary market. But I am having trouble understanding why they would want to intentionally crowd out other buyers, particularly other domestic buyers, or is that just an unintended consequence? ...
This is emphatically not the case. Japanese savers and institutions acting on their behalf have always bought and will continue to buy and own JGBs.You got an answer from Martinghoul, my own very simplistic idea of why this happens would be that the BoJ buys all these government bonds, because no Japanese saver is buying them, because of 0 interest rate and weak economy. So probably it's not they intentionally want to crowd out other investors, there's just too few investors.
This is emphatically not the case. Japanese savers and institutions acting on their behalf have always bought and will continue to buy and own JGBs.
In is my none too humble opinion that a good working knowledge of basic macroeconomic principles is one of the keys to successful trading and investing except perhaps short term trading, where it is not so important, but still helpful.
But I would caution you regarding using anything from "zerohedge" as reliable. You've got to seriously question everything you read there, even if it seems to make sense.