So this is a bit advanced, I'm not expecting too much. But perhaps there is a whiz-kid on ET who fiddled around with this, too.
Option skew exists because asset prices have fat tails, we all know that. Indices fall faster than they go up, vice versa for NatGas.
So you could go to your trusted excel, calculate a historical return distribution and price your 5 - 25 delta options from there.
For me that's not really practical and also it doesn't make a lot of sense from a trading standpoint.
So I tried to view it from another angle.
Primer: ATM vega is linear, OTM vega is convex (volga). This means that OTM options that have no delta and vega when volatily is low will have delta and vega when volatility is higher.
Let's say implied volatility ranges from 50 - 100% we asume that vol of vol returns are evenly distributed.
This means that you can put a price on ATM IV at 75% ((50+100)/2))
The price of the wings, however, are dependend only on the 100% volatility figure, since they have 0 vega/delta under the 50% volatility regime.
So when I know that volatility can go to 100% why would I sell the wings low when IV is at 50%? Right, I won't.
The question I'm tinkering with is: Since vega is convex in the wings, you can't use a simple average like you can ATM. Intuitively, skew is higher in shorter tenors since vol of vol is higher there.
But how would you go about calculating the wing prices depending on vol level?
I mean, we know that VIX has a min reading of 10 and a max reading of 80.
When at 10, the wings should be really expensive compared to ATM, at 80 there should be no skew at all (IF IV of 80 was a granted maximum...which it isn't)
However, due to supply and demand, skew still gets pumped up heavily once IV picks up....which would provide an opportunity to sell wings that are too expensive.
GME was a good example when it started to run. IMO there was no reason for a 40% put skew when IV was already sky high and selling these was actually the best trade during the dump.
Thoughts?
@taowave @Kevin Schmit @destriero
Option skew exists because asset prices have fat tails, we all know that. Indices fall faster than they go up, vice versa for NatGas.
So you could go to your trusted excel, calculate a historical return distribution and price your 5 - 25 delta options from there.
For me that's not really practical and also it doesn't make a lot of sense from a trading standpoint.
So I tried to view it from another angle.
Primer: ATM vega is linear, OTM vega is convex (volga). This means that OTM options that have no delta and vega when volatily is low will have delta and vega when volatility is higher.
Let's say implied volatility ranges from 50 - 100% we asume that vol of vol returns are evenly distributed.
This means that you can put a price on ATM IV at 75% ((50+100)/2))
The price of the wings, however, are dependend only on the 100% volatility figure, since they have 0 vega/delta under the 50% volatility regime.
So when I know that volatility can go to 100% why would I sell the wings low when IV is at 50%? Right, I won't.
The question I'm tinkering with is: Since vega is convex in the wings, you can't use a simple average like you can ATM. Intuitively, skew is higher in shorter tenors since vol of vol is higher there.
But how would you go about calculating the wing prices depending on vol level?
I mean, we know that VIX has a min reading of 10 and a max reading of 80.
When at 10, the wings should be really expensive compared to ATM, at 80 there should be no skew at all (IF IV of 80 was a granted maximum...which it isn't)
However, due to supply and demand, skew still gets pumped up heavily once IV picks up....which would provide an opportunity to sell wings that are too expensive.
GME was a good example when it started to run. IMO there was no reason for a 40% put skew when IV was already sky high and selling these was actually the best trade during the dump.
Thoughts?
@taowave @Kevin Schmit @destriero
