I could guess that the EUR funds can earn a rate above EURIBOR via money market or hedged USD overnight rate (eg. Fed funds less EUR/USD swap rate?). You may want to compare this to the cross currency swap rate. (not sure)I attach the image with the details of the calculation. It must be taken into account that in Europe the risk-free rate is currently around 4%.
In your opinion, where could the error be?
This result leads us to another question: shouldn't the risk-free interest rate be the same for futures and options that have the same maturity?
I could guess that the EUR funds can earn a rate above EURIBOR via money market or hedged USD overnight rate (eg. Fed funds less EUR/USD swap rate?). You may want to compare this to the cross currency swap rate. (not sure)
I am interested in analyzing this basis as well. What broker/exchange ticker are you using for the index calculation? Also, you are using the front month EUREX contract, FDAX?
In practice, I have found that I can simply chart the differential (F-S) instead of (1/T*ln(F/S)) for most uses. You are unlikely to be trading the basis against another rate I would presume.
Thanks.
yes, and it’s not technically going to be the risk free rate but rather sofr - the rate the best counterparty pays.
edit; in 2007-2008 this became an arbitrage opportunity as options priced to LIBOR but the spread of what different banks paid was huge. Some could lend money at a profit and others could borrow more favorably than in the CP market.