Market System of Operation

Quote from frenchfry:


Bar 25: OB, use volume
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frenchfry,

If you could weigh in here it would be helpful. Here is the text that has been giving me trouble understanding exactly.

"After a two bar "internal"(the 8 cases of waiting), you have to do work to log the next row. Mentally fold the second bar into the first bar. Thus you know the H and L of the "squished bar equivaalent. You may then "see" translation for making money."

Based off your ID of Bar 25 as OB, I take it to mean that Jack is just describing the beginning of a lateral ONLY.

I've been taking this to mean that for example, we would be using the H and L of the "squished bar equivalent" [of Bar 18 and 19] In order to measure the bars in the lateral until we see translation from the initial H and L. If that was the case, I was thinking Bar 25 would be an XB relative to the squished bar H and L.
 
Here is my current PP1 Sheet. I have two questions about PP1 in order to complete my knowledge.

1. On the Pre-Primary EE Sheet, under "Additional Requirements," the following is written:

(P1.2 - P1.1) < (P1.0 - P1.1)

Is this a mistake, or am I misunderstanding something? Let's use the example that was kindly posted by smwbbe, and used in my attached image. Let us just assume the grid-lines for volume shown are by increments of 5,000 for the purpose of discussion. Here are estimated Volume values of the P1's.

P1.0 = 14,000
P1.1 = 19,000
P1.2 = 25,000

If we use these numbers in the above equation, we get this:

(25,000 - 19,000) < (14,000 - 19,000) -> (6,000 < -5,000) -> false.

I thought perhaps the equation was intended to read:
(P1.2 - P1.1) < (P1.1 - P1.0), but that would be (6,000 < 5,000), which is false as well. Can anyone clarify my misunderstanding here?

--

Also, Jack posted the following as well,

Getting a PP1.

This is like poker. Three of a kind is dealt when it is dealt.

Increasing volatility of a trend is done at any time. Hooray.

If you have T for more than one pkea, then you use the "leftmost" peak. P1 wins a lot of these tests.
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Can someone explain what this is referring to? I wasn't sure how to relate this to my understanding of PP1 because it seems that if there are multiple Peaks, the time that PP1 could have possibly occurred in that trend would have already passed for good since another P1 assignment would only occur at the start of a new trend.
 

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Quote from gucci:

Hi Jack! What is MADA?
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MADA is uor routine.

OODA is the CW routine (known or unknown to CW folks).


Monitor

Analyze

Decide

timely Action.

All the while, a person who is trading is at work.

A trader has to "know he knows" all the time.

A trader has an approach. It is partly a plan and partly a strategy.

The approach is all inclusive.

He has a manual to operate a viewing platform and he has a manual to operate a trading account(s).

He knows everything required to make these CRT displays work as a trader.

To always "know you know" there is a requrement to BE, DO and HAVE effectivenss and efficiency.

Most traders are CW and OODA oriented. A bet is placed. A stop is set. A target is hoped for. Bet placing is related to "setups". The CW OODA trader has one set of feelings wheen on the sidelines and a separate set (fear, anxiety and anger) after the bet is placed and "hoping" is being done.

Here we do NOT bet. We do not hope And we are busy all the time WORKING.

Six glossary terms cover our work while trading.

Routine I a repeated practine that assures everything possible is done to "know you know".

The viewing platform has real time data perculating. Many highlights are activated to allow for observaation of price and volume contexts.

Monitoring

On the price pane the price cases emote.

On the volume pane there is the PRV shadow always at work.

About six OOE's are unfolding.

The trader, expertly, annotates as well:

1. Volume has rays for each bar that is measurable.

2. price is shaped by using rtl and Bookmarking on the 5 minute.

3. Channels are used on the 30 min and rtl's are noted. Moves are named as well.

Analysis

Above you see a lot of rote automatic mental activity. But some times there is actual brain work coming to the mind's surface. All the rays are easily done and there is time to place a lot of things ahead of their final postions, since analysis tells you everything ahead of time.

All volume EE's and price turns are assembled prior to their impending usage.

Trading is done occasionally and after that MADA begins again.

Logs are used to record what is coming up and what has happened.

A trader has many sheets available to complete analysis. Since my mind invented them, I usually do not use reference sheets.

I "lnow I know" the common occurances. The Modrian table is under glass as a cover sitting to my upper right. I am color sensitive and the column name is there on price near the forming bar and the past column is there cast in stone as is the arrow color and the turn box. I place two possible turns near the arrow and the column name. The Modrian table gives be the "c" turn only. If not, then not. So I slide the turn into place AFTER I have traded (either in a 30 min modus or a 5 min modus) or DURING holding periods.

Deciding

This is brief. 10 to 100ms does it. All the OOE's get throught through during analysis. A moment every once in a while is used to DECIDE on an ACTION.

timely Action

The market dictates timely action and leading indicators of price make this an automatic response behavior. Behavioral Finance explains it all.

Summary.

MADA has been explained publically for about 56 years now. It is the replacement for OODA of the CW approach.
 
Quote from llIHeroic:

Here is my current PP1 Sheet. I have two questions about PP1 in order to complete my knowledge.

1. On the Pre-Primary EE Sheet, under "Additional Requirements," the following is written:

(P1.2 - P1.1) < (P1.0 - P1.1)

Is this a mistake, or am I misunderstanding something? Let's use the example that was kindly posted by smwbbe, and used in my attached image. Let us just assume the grid-lines for volume shown are by increments of 5,000 for the purpose of discussion. Here are estimated Volume values of the P1's.

P1.0 = 14,000
P1.1 = 19,000
P1.2 = 25,000

If we use these numbers in the above equation, we get this:

(25,000 - 19,000) < (14,000 - 19,000) -> (6,000 < -5,000) -> false.

I thought perhaps the equation was intended to read:
(P1.2 - P1.1) < (P1.1 - P1.0), but that would be (6,000 < 5,000), which is false as well. Can anyone clarify my misunderstanding here?

--

Also, Jack posted the following as well,



Can someone explain what this is referring to? I wasn't sure how to relate this to my understanding of PP1 because it seems that if there are multiple Peaks, the time that PP1 could have possibly occurred in that trend would have already passed for good since another P1 assignment would only occur at the start of a new trend.
More...


PP1 is 3 P1's with acceleration. This is what additional requirements get applied to.

Now then, I think you have a nomenclature issue...
P.0 is the CURRENT or most recent bar.
p.1 is previous bar from current
p.2 is is 2 bars previous from current

Based on that nomenclature your variables describe PP6!
P1.0 = 14,000 ... current (most recent)
P1.1 = 19,000 ... 1 bar previous
P1.2 = 25,000 ... 2 bars previous


Bottom line there are two steps...
1) Identify a PP1 (3 P1 bars (with acceleration))
2) Once identified, apply additional requirements. In this case the pace of acceleration.


But WTF do I know

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