Making JH' SCT and all his material alive

This is a gold mine. I need to read, reread and read it again.

Thank you very much @Simples , you're pointing out some really important things.

What’s important is the repeating phrase. It’s not necessarily a causal relationship with the statement prior. That wasn’t the point that I was attempting to get across.

What is important is the repeating phrase.

The repeating phrase is your current sticking point. You say you understand this concept but your BM placement and P1 assignment sometimes are congruent to the phrase and at other times not.
 
This is false if I consider bar 5 being Ag VEBO. Ag VEBO is an A-band end effect, so P1 is assigned on current bar so on bar 6, not 7.
View attachment 200327

Bingo!

Now since the BM represents a trend beginning in the opposite direction and that the T1 of that trend doesn’t align, (with what up to this point and through the typical annotation of SCT the geometric construction of that trend,) by also placing a repeat BM at T1 supports creating a relative RTL for this new trend beginning.

It’s similar to what a tractor-trailer would have to do when making a tight turn - they would have to go outside their lane and into the opposite lane for a moment for the purpose of navigating the turn correctly.

The repeat BM is used as a virtual pt1 for a geometrically congruent RTL in this new trend direction. However the BM placed at the assigned P1 is used as the reference for a BM,rev if that FS EE were to be activated.

Consider it a new type of fanning a RTL.
 
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This is false if I consider bar 5 being Ag VEBO. Ag VEBO is an A-band end effect, so P1 is assigned on current bar so on bar 6, not 7.

And when bar 8 comes, it both BO prior rtl AND it is on T1 in volume so -> BO,T1 ?
If yes, then a BM is assigned and here one more time something that makes things fuzzy : the BO,T1 is in a long orientation so at first i'd say BM is at bottom of bar 8 and is long, BUT the prior BM was long so the new one must be short and at top...

bar 8 BM.png
 
SO SO SO frustrating that I have again to let the work aside for today. I must go :(
I'm really excited and happy about digging the things that way, thank you very much for that support and presence even on Sunday @Sprout !
See you tomorrow, I can't wait to return at work...
 
And when bar 8 comes, it both BO prior rtl AND it is on T1 in volume so -> BO,T1 ?
If yes, then a BM is assigned and here one more time something that makes things fuzzy : the BO,T1 is in a long orientation so at first i'd say BM is at bottom of bar 8 and is long, BUT the prior BM was long so the new one must be short and at top...

View attachment 200328

The OOE resets at the left event. This means that anything prior to the left event is in the past and not used in reference to this new developing trend segment. The exception is for drawing larger fractal containers.

Even though the sentiment of each bar6 and bar7 are short, they are part of a new long given the presence of the Ag EE and it’s associated BM.

This is congruent with the concept that new trends begin within the old.

Did this bar8 BO of bar7’s T1 associated with the prior BM at bar6?

Given the above, for bar8’s BM to be true, (irregardless of which EE best fits) where would the close of that bar have to be?
 
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Necessary conditions are not gathered today to make me able to work. I must wait until tomorrow. Take care of you, best day and IR to you and see you tomorrow morning.
 
Finally, I have a very little moment, and as I want to optimize it :

The repeating phrase is your current sticking point. You say you understand this concept but your BM placement and P1 assignment sometimes are congruent to the phrase and at other times not.
Trying to stick to that

Did this bar8 BO of bar7’s T1 associated with the prior BM at bar6?
Yes it does, its close is above prior rtl which was short, so BO,T1, short BM at top being as last one was long at bottom of both bars 6 and 7.


And then, that's how I see what follows :

Sans titre.png


Bar 8 : XB, BO,T1 of prior established rtl, P1 assigned and as prior BM was long (the repeat one on Bar 7 that creates virtual point 1 of long trend segment which finally appears to be most likely the bar 8 itself) then the new BM is short at top.

Bar 9 : xB, Close is above prior BM, so BM,rev, P1 assigned and new BM long at bottom.

Bar 10 : XB, rtl accelerates, degap required, volume is DEC so T1.

Bar 11 : XB, rtl fans, volume is INC so P2.

Bar 12 : SYM on DEC volume BUT close is out prior rtl so BO,T1, then new short BM at top and vomue OOE resets then P1 assigned on current bar as BO,T1 is FS.
NB : I have a doubt on this one, that comes from "I don't know if the close out of rtl takes precedence on the WAIT action required by SYM + DEC volume". It just makes sense to make start the new short trend segment from this bar.

Bar 13 : XR, volume INC, repeat P1.

Bar 14 : XR, rtl acc, repeat of P1 and there is a NOT PP1 due to absence of accelerating three P1's.

Bar 15 : XR, rtl accelerates, INC volume so P1 repeat and this time PP1 due to acceleration measured. So, next bar is assigned P1 with opposite BM, so BM long at bottom of bar 16.

Bar 16 : XR, rtl accelerates, beginning of a long trend segment underway.



For me, tricky and uncomfort now

Bar 17 : XR, degap required, rtl fans and close is both out of prior rtl AND under prior long BM so -> BO,T1 and BM rev. So P1 assigned on current bar, new opposite BM short at top is drawn.

Until here, I see the long trend segment initiated by low of bar 16 ending at top of bar 17.

Bar 18 : Wait BUT if BO,T1 takes precedence then here BO,T1 of prior rtl and then OOE resets and P1 assigned with long BM.

Bar 19 : XB, rtl fans, volume is DEC so T1.


Comfort is back

Bar 20 : XR, degap required, BO,T1 from prior rtl, OOE resets on FS so P1 assigned and short BM is placed.

Bar 21 : XR, rtl fans, repeat of P1

Bar 22 : XR, degap required, repeat of P1 with acceleration so PP1 EE so OOE resets and P1 is assigned on next bar with associated long BM at bottom.

Bar 23 : XR, rtl fans, degap is required, close BO prior rtl on T1 so BO,T1. BM and P1 was already assigned due to prior EE located.


Uncomfort is back

Bar 24 : racehorse. OB, VTP would say P1/T1 so PP4 EE and assign P1 on next bar, BUT we have here both BMrev AND BO,T1 of prior rtl. So here, I only see a P1 assigned for two FS-reason, so BM short is placed, and due to the nature of OB PC, BM long is also placed at bottom of the bar.


Bar 25 : XR, degap required, rtl accelerates, close crosses prior BM. so BM rev. BUT there were two BMs placed... tricky here. For now, what would make sense for me is just to consider only placing a new short BM short at top, reffering to lastly reversed long BM. It's like a new BM short advancing.
In addition to that, P1 is thus assigned due to FS labelled AND P1 is accelerating and there are 3 in a row. SO -> PP1 EE and next bar is P1 assigned with BM long at bottom.

Comfort is back again

Bar 26 : P1 assigned due to prior PP1 EE, XR, rtl fans

Bar 27 : XR, rtl fans, BM rev so P1 assigned and new BM short placed.

Bar 28 : degap required, FBP after degap, vol DEC so -> WAIT
 
Yes it does, its close is above prior rtl which was short, so BO,T1, short BM at top being as last one was long at bottom of both bars 6 and 7.

This is your current sticking point.

Review the repeating phrase.

In your chart, that prior RTL had an EE of Ag.

Ag has an assigned P1, therefore a new OOE begins.

This OOE is long.

Ag is a left event.

From here, is there a RTL long violated with a BO?
 
Finally, I have a very little moment, and as I want to optimize it :

Great!

Bar 8 : XB, BO,T1 of prior established rtl, P1 assigned and as prior BM was long (the repeat one on Bar 7 that creates virtual point 1 of long trend segment which finally appears to be most likely the bar 8 itself) then the new BM is short at top.

New Bar 6 long BM (assuming correctness of EE) erases effects of previous RTL and OHLCV bars left of new trend segment. So even though it is good to visualize trend intersects, you need to always annotate events according to latest trend segment in the fractal. BM without valid RTL (yet) is start of new sentiment and trend segment. Anyhow, a long BO would be long BM, if one would personally deem that necessary as a failsafe measure.
 
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