What's so special about %R? There are other "range indicators
.
Nothing special, You can use ur favorite indicator.
What's so special about %R? There are other "range indicators
.

.... Read Option 101 books by S. Natenburg
But as Stymie said, net sum of overall trades were very profitable (convexity) in spite of having to pay the MM high bid/ask spread during exits. I don't mind paying them their fair share, just do not want to overpay.![]()

Thanks for the advice. I will take a look carefully.Go back and look at the bid/ask chart for the atm ES options when Brexit result was in
No good having super duper software to work everything out, and then the MM's pull the plug..LOL
logic is not your forte. let me know when you can name the logic errors in your post.Selling an ATM put on a stock or ETF is less risky than buying 100 shares of the underlying. So if you think that's too risky, you shouldn't be trading more than 99 shares of stock / ETF.
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If you're just getting into options, there is one thing that gets served up *all* the time -- and is so grossly inaccurate: theta decay.
Most of the time (>90%?!?), option decay due to time is portrayed like the ATM (red) line above.
Understanding that OTM options decay almost linearly, AND THEN FLATTEN as expiration approaches, is missed -- in my mind, deliberately.
The *implication* of that blue OTM line though .... Woof! It's big! It means that you should really be out of that (net short) position by the time that Θ goes to zero (i.e., "the line flattens"). The red ATM line conveys the opposite thought: "Hold to the bitter end!"
Since your exposure (of margin capital) is unchanged, why would you want to hold onto something worth so little, for so much (relative) risk?
In selling OTM options, you trade the blue line's market. Don't be lured by the ATM decay into holding a dime with $5 or $10 of risk attached. Move that position out!
Illiquidity. Market makers have to hedge their positions and for options that are very cheap (near zero) it is just not cost effective to their business model so they widen the bid/ask spread to compensate. When the option you are trying to buy/sell should be 0.02 a bid ask spread of 0.05 will represent a very large percentage of its price, hence why the extrinsic value approaches flatness for OTM (especially Far OTM) options and in particular as expiration approachesIs the flattening of the TV of OTM options near expiration inherent to the pricing model or it's due to the illiquidity (exit cost)?
logic is not your forte. let me know when you can name the logic errors in your post.