Greetings,
I found that IB's portfolio margin requirement is way higher for collar than a risk-equivalent call spread, sometimes 10 times higher for some stocks. The comparison is set up like the following:
K1 is the lower strike, S is the stock price, K2 is the higher strike.
K1 < S < K2
Collar: 100x stock + 1x put @ K1 - 1x call @ K2
Call spread: 1x call @ K1 - 1x call @ K2
Both strategy should have the same risk profile: _/▔. How would they have such different margin requirement? What am I missing? Thanks!
I found that IB's portfolio margin requirement is way higher for collar than a risk-equivalent call spread, sometimes 10 times higher for some stocks. The comparison is set up like the following:
K1 is the lower strike, S is the stock price, K2 is the higher strike.
K1 < S < K2
Collar: 100x stock + 1x put @ K1 - 1x call @ K2
Call spread: 1x call @ K1 - 1x call @ K2
Both strategy should have the same risk profile: _/▔. How would they have such different margin requirement? What am I missing? Thanks!