ok. So while
@ironchef definitely summed my point way better than I did. I now totally get what
@taowave and
@poopy are saying (even if poopy is a grumpy anger ball).
And indeed I was ignorant of the use case because of my inexperience in your position. I still do believe there could be a better method that is pretty low hanging fruit, however, I now understand why good enough and mathematically tractable is preferable to lower bias in the face of data, because for the most part in your use case, you are creating the data or there just isn't data available and everybody in that transaction is all good with that.
And, thanks to mr. Kevin's really interesting post, maybe what's important about the model is not the absolute price and it's weakness due to the IV flaw we've discussed, but what BS does do well is estimate greeks, in other words relative price. At the end of the day, you already have a market to price the asset, and what we really might need a model for is the greeks.
Anyways, thanks for humoring my aggressive half-truth Socratic questioning. I think I really get something I was not expecting to get.
Am I getting closer here? Shall we have a warm Hegelian moment? Or am I still missing stuff on the whole?