Quoted bid/ask on the spread I purchased was $0.25/$0.54, and I bought within seconds at $0.40.
This begs the question -- why don't those of you who are criticizing my method address expectation? It is highest for DITM spreads. Do the math.

Is that a typo? The ask must have been $0.44 or $0.45, not $0.54. If I am mistaken there is no need to go off on a tangent.
I don't see any profit in opening any sort of DITM spread. Perhaps you might get a few pennies once in a while, but most times they will end up negative.
Not a typo.

Well, I model it, although IV is an input that is hard to predict. So no, I don't accept delta as an approximation of probability. Not that it's all that far off, but I don't use it.
How would your method ever predict a negative payout? $ difference is positive, delta difference is positive. My model shows that many (most) spreads have negative expectations.
I must be misunderstanding your calc. I could sell DOTM and buy DITM, realizing a huge strike difference and nearly 100% delta difference. Explain more, please?
OK .... So the ask was $0.54 on a spread with a maximum value of $0.50.
I thought your strategy involved both ITM options. With a a combination of ITM long call and OTM short call, you are only a few deltas away from a covered call. As such, a simple short naked put with your desired delta exposure may suffice.