The broker says "$0 commission" and at the same time a "fee of $0.65 per contract"What comms are you paying for that option trade? Is it very cheap due to PFOF? It sounds like the order went to a market maker first before they decide where to send it. They could claim that they want to avoid locking the markets , tons of reasons they can use because each option exchange can have their own shitty rules that benefit the big players. The entire market is rigged <snip>

Ie. effectively $0.65 per contract.
Yeah, afterwards, after they have been caught-in-the-act, they can give any of these preformulated reasons... Never a "fault" of themselves, always a fault of others... The usual default excuse in such circles...

BTW, an interesting read that explains PFOF (Payment For Order Flow) :
https://public.com/learn/payment-for-order-flow-pfof-explained-and-why-it-matters
But of course usually a more "authentic" info can be found at wikipedia:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Payment_for_order_flow
So, then it's an attempted fraud committed by the market maker.
But then the control instance of the broker has failed as well. The question is: Why?
Why does the broker not verify that the order landed correctly in the market?
Testing this programmatically is IMO very well possible!...
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