Passover is actually a day, it's the day we celebrate God killing all the babies and children whose only crime was to be the first boy born to their family, remember? But I digress into more pure evil.
Let's go with this whole "preparation day" idea, because you actually contradict yourself in what you wrote. According to you, "preparation day" is Friday. According to Mark, 16 The disciples left, went into the city and found things just as Jesus had told them. So they prepared the Passover.
17 When evening came, Jesus arrived with the Twelve. 18 While they were reclining at the table eating, he said, “Truly I tell you, one of you will betray me—one who is eating with me.”"
Notice the part I bolded, when it said they "prepared the Passover" and that same evening had the last supper. If we're going with your explanation, they would have "prepared the Passover" on "preparation day" which according to you was Friday, therefore the last supper was Friday night.
Now let's look again at John 19, as inconvenient as it is for you since I noticed you tried to ignore it in favor of a different verse that didn't present such a clear contradiction.
Again, it says "13 When Pilate heard this, he brought Jesus out and sat down on the judge’s seat at a place known as the Stone Pavement (which in Aramaic is Gabbatha).14 It was the day of Preparation of the Passover; it was about noon." So clearly, Pilate judged Jesus on the day of "preparation for Passover", which again going with your words, is Friday. So somehow either Pilate judged Jesus on Friday at about noon and then subsequently released him and he went and had had the last supper where he not very impressively predicted something that had already happened, or they had the last supper on the Friday before the passover festival and 7 days (or I suppose a year or two years or anything else that allows that temporal timeline) later on that Friday at noon he was judged by Pilate......or these were two passages written down by two men, transcribed by many other men over 2,000 years at the direction of rulers who decided which books were in the Bible and what those books said to further their own often selfish ends and therefore aren't 100% consistent as would be expected in those circumstances. Occams razor and all that.
For now, what, the fourth time, what do you see yourself accomplishing with this? Do you seriously think anyone, anywhere, ever, will see your "proof" that actually makes no sense and come to the personal relationship with God that you value and apparently yourself came to without "proof" and without needing "proof"? Again, don't you think it is a more effective use of your time to stop the rank hypocrisy of your fellow fundamentalists who daily perpetrate discrimination on homosexuals for their supposed sexual evils while ignoring Jesus' completely unambiguous words about those same sins among the divorced and remarried completely and blathering on about forgiveness and how we have all sinned (apparently that only applied to the "good" people, not the gays?) That would be witness to the words of Jesus.....what you're doing here, not so much. As is apocryphally attributed to Gandhi, "I like your Christ, I do not like your Christians. Your Christians are so unlike your Christ."
Getting back to our discussion on contradictions, I thought I'd start with this:
Now let's look again at John 19, as inconvenient as it is for you since I noticed you tried to ignore it in favor of a different verse that didn't present such a clear contradiction.
Again, it says "13 When Pilate heard this, he brought Jesus out and sat down on the judge’s seat at a place known as the Stone Pavement (which in Aramaic is Gabbatha).14 It was the day of Preparation of the Passover; it was about noon."
I did not ignore it. I referenced it twice:
So, here's my response to the last contradiction you sent over, the one claiming that "Preparation Day of the Passover" meant it was the First day of Unleavened Bread. The First day of Unleavened Bread is when the lamb would be sacrificed. Instead, I would take the phrase to mean the "Preparation Day that came during the 7 day Feast of Passover."
Here’s the second time:
John has the same sequence of events, and during Jesus overnight mock trial states in 19:14, “Now it was the Preparation Day of the Passover……" then later in 19:31, says “Therefore, because it was the Preparation Day, that the bodies should not remain on the Sabbath (for that Sabbath was a high day).”
I also showed that Mark defines what Preparation day means:
“Now on the first day of Unleavened Bread, when they killed the Passover lamb…” Mark 15:12 This would be Thursday evening. The story of the “Last Supper” follows. (Mark 15:14)Then came Jesus arrest overnight and Friday was the day of His crucifixion. “When evening had come, because it was the Preparation day, that is, the day before the Sabbath….” Mark 15:42
Now let’s look at what you wrote here:
Passover is actually a day
That is incorrect. I previously showed you that the feast of unleavened bread lasts 7 days.
According to a current rabbi:
https://www.aish.com/atr/Passover-14th-or-15th.html
If you read Leviticus 23:5-6 carefully, you will see that there are actually two holidays at this time:
(a) “Pesach” – the slaughtering and eating of the paschal lamb (or goat) which begins the afternoon of the 14th with its slaughtering and continues that night with its consumption.
(b) “The Holiday of Matzot” – the seven day feast we refer to as Passover, which begins the night of the 15th.
Here is an article that gives 5 scenarios presented by scholars to address this subject. I only agree with the 5th scenario:
https://www.christiancourier.com/articles/390-did-jesus-eat-the-passover-supper
Fifth, the Greek word for Passover is pascha. The term is used in three different senses in the Bible.
Sometimes the word stands for the Passover sacrifice, the lamb itself (Mk. 14:12; Lk. 22:7; 1 Cor. 5:7).
On other occasions pascha can denote the meal that was eaten on the 14th of Nisan, the first month of the Hebrew calendar (Mt. 26:18-19; Lk. 22:8, 13; Heb. 11:28).
But it is also the case that the term pascha can refer to the entire eight-day period which included the feast of unleavened bread — thus from the 14th of Nisan to the 21st. Note this passage:
In the first month, on the fourteenth day of the month, you shall observe the Passover, a feast of seven days; unleavened bread shall be eaten" (Ezek: 45:21; cf. Lk. 22:1, 7; Acts 12:3-4).
F.W. Danker
7 notes: “Popular usage merged the two festivals and treated them as a unity, as they were for all practical purposes.”
There were several “feasts” during this period (see 2 Chron. 30:22); the one mentioned in John 18:28 may have been on the day following the main Passover supper. It was called the Chagigah (sacrificial meal). This view is defended by many respectable scholars, e.g., Lenski and Edersheim. Edward Robinson has a clear and detailed explanation of this position that is worthy of serious consideration, and, in this writer’s judgment, this argument carries the greatest weight of evidence
8.
In conclusion we must say that we may not be able to determine the precise situation alluded to in John 18:28. Nonetheless, there are sufficient possibilities to establish the fact that no insuperable difficulty exists to challenge our confidence in the sacred text.
