Ad on b64. http://screencast.com/t/yqUdq9R9J6
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Deciphering Jack Analysis Bar by Bar ll
- Thread starter workwithus
- Start date
Thru b74.Ab on b69.BM REV and PP1 on B71.BM REV on b72.BO T1,BM REV and PP1 on b74. http://screencast.com/t/g6HwLs7sbJ
Ok thru b78.PP1 on b76.Then wait on b77.So still no first P1 assignment.Then on b78 get XR after squish so only assign first P1. No advance one peak assignment. http://screencast.com/t/M2GwoJEoi
Carryover is at first P2 in down sequence.Interesting thing is i'm still working on the few BO T1's i have seen on jack's chart past the P2 and it may have something to do with the P2 being assigned on inc vol internal bar.Still not sure but that is what we have on b81.Hmm. http://screencast.com/t/G2vkbdPzfP
Whole day. http://screencast.com/t/ypXJxRWn
I thought i would post an Ah Ha i had a while ago on drawing BM 's and RTL's the way jack seems to do it with his new method.Like with alot of jack's stuff what you may think (especially if you spent time studying jack's fractal stuff) is correct is not. Here goes.Jack always start his BM and RTL annotation from the ACTUAL "EE" BAR even if its a PP or B thru K EE. These EE's are where you assign the first P1 to the next measurable bar.On PP or B thru K EE's you don't use the first P1 bar to start the BM and RTL annotation but instead the actual EE bar.This is very important concept to understand.In order to have the correct BM's and RTL's in play you have to realize this.Also once you get this ah ha you notice that on alot of jack's charts where you think there should be a RTL jack has not drawn one.Did jack make an error? Did he just forget to draw it? Well most likely he couldn't draw the RTL because the next bar after the EE had pierced the BM intrabar only to close back inside.So no BM REV.Just as important is this prevents any RTL from being drawn (in order to draw to this bar the rtl would be going in the opposite direction of the sequence).Because no RTL can be drawn to the second bar of the sequence then no RTL is annotated for the rest of the sequence.Here's an example from jack's 1-10-14 chart. This example shows a PP3 EE triggering but the next bar where the first P1 is assigned pierces the BM and closes back in.Then the sequence takes off and goes for about 11 bars.Notice no RTL drawn even after the market moves up. If someone looks at jack's charts they will notice this happens over and over again.So not all sequences have a RTL basically because of geometry between the actual EE bar and the second bar. http://screencast.com/t/5mHmV4FfvKOw
Here's another example from jack's 1-13-14 chart.This time an OB occurs on the bar right after the PP3 EE bar.The OB prevents a rtl from being annotated in the direction of the sequence (up).The sequence runs up for about 5 bars with no RTL drawn. http://screencast.com/t/WlkG7fERX
Here's an example from Jack's 12-19-13 chart.This time the EE bar is a BO T1. The next bar pierces the BM and close back in.Then the sequence runs down for a few bars.No RTL can be drawn because of the second bar geometry.When jack said this method is math based i guess he meant it. http://screencast.com/t/kaOhOnkS
So, from the chart of [1-22] that you posted of the whole day, do you believe that rtl is drawn from the EE bar to the next bar itself, or the next significant bar. I am aware that it is fanned over internal price cases even when they are tested for a volume element, but I have been unable to understand the correct way to handle
1. EE Bar
2. Internal
3. Translation Bar
Do we use rtl from 1 to 2, or does the rtl only go up from EE to next significant bar (1 to 3 in this example)? I see that you have the rtl of the last trend of the day doing the second option. If rtl is uses Bar 76 and Bar 77, we may have BO T1 on Bar 80.
1. EE Bar
2. Internal
3. Translation Bar
Do we use rtl from 1 to 2, or does the rtl only go up from EE to next significant bar (1 to 3 in this example)? I see that you have the rtl of the last trend of the day doing the second option. If rtl is uses Bar 76 and Bar 77, we may have BO T1 on Bar 80.
Here's how to draw the RTL for b76 and b77.The rtl is always started at the actual EE bar (so is the BM) even is its a PP EE.It's a PP1 here.So even though the first P1 is assigned on the first measurable bar the rtl starts on b76 and is drawn to b77 if possible (if b77 pierces the BM on top of b76 than i can't annotate a rtl for this sequence).In this situation b77 doesn't pierce the BM so i can draw a rtl to b77.Notice i have not been able to assign a first P1 but do have a rtl in play.Remember i would need a first P1 and the T1 (which can occur on the BO bar) before i have a BO T1.So, from the chart of [1-22] that you posted of the whole day, do you believe that rtl is drawn from the EE bar to the next bar itself, or the next significant bar. I am aware that it is fanned over internal price cases even when they are tested for a volume element, but I have been unable to understand the correct way to handle
1. EE Bar
2. Internal
3. Translation Bar
Do we use rtl from 1 to 2, or does the rtl only go up from EE to next significant bar (1 to 3 in this example)? I see that you have the rtl of the last trend of the day doing the second option. If rtl is uses Bar 76 and Bar 77, we may have BO T1 on Bar 80.
http://screencast.com/t/nxa8z0mcsZxo