Quote from mcurto:
Still not covering the put position. I have a strange feeling it could have been Countrywide or even PIMCO protecting some long mortgage position (rather than in-house Goldman) but again who knows. All that matters is the mortgage markets have ZERO sponsorship right now and this is just exaggerating the massive move lower in Treasuries. With the spread product widening everyone looks to sell something against so Treasuries and/or swaps are the two most liquid options at this point in time. When you push one domino, in this case 5% in the 10yr cash, the rest of the dominos fall hard and fast. In terms of flows I have heard the mortgage-related selling is starting to slow but there is probably a point where it gets triggered again.
I find this fascinating. Is it possible you could quickly explain in concrete (and hopefully simplified) terms how a long MBS position holder would hedge with short treasuries or 30 yrs ?? I am curious also how prepayment risk of MBS's factors into this, since long MBS longs are essentially short the 'prepayment call' to the mortgage holding end user. Any way to simplify an explanation with details of likely hedge ratios ie...
a. PIMCO owns 20B worth of MBS. assumption: PIMCO wants to hedge downside risk in this high foreclosure market.
b. therefore if yield drops to predetermined hedge points, they sell treasuries to protect principal on portfolio. They sell ie 10B notional worth of treasuries for every 50bps yields rise above ie 5.0 percent.
c. how is prepayment call dealt with? what does the MBS holder hedge with as call exercise risk increases? do they simply buy puts on the open market when MBS's fall to strike points?
etc. etc.
Is it safe to assume MBS hedging is much like any short vol position works? ie buying more as something goes higher, selling more as something goes lower ?