Are equal % moves equally profitable in different pairs?

Quote from MarketMafia:

There is a thing name " Correlation". I think it will answer your question.

cor·re·la·tion (kôr'ə-lā'shən, kŏr'-) pronunciation
n.

1. A causal, complementary, parallel, or reciprocal relationship, especially a structural, functional, or qualitative correspondence between two comparable entities: a correlation between drug abuse and crime.
2. Statistics. The simultaneous change in value of two numerically valued random variables: the positive correlation between cigarette smoking and the incidence of lung cancer; the negative correlation between age and normal vision.
3. An act of correlating or the condition of being correlated.
 
Quote from MarketMafia:

There is a thing name " Correlation". I think it will answer your question.

I think of correlation as more related to a beta between -1 and 1.
 
Quote from uninvited_guest:

Yes that is correct.......unless both pairs have the same base/quote (GBP/USD) values.

Ok, thanks. I guess I need to find a way to determine how equitable different moves in different pairs are.

If my system makes 2 predictions, say the EUR/USD is supposed to go up 1%, and the AUD/JPY is also supposed to go up 1% - it would be nice to know which would make more money if they both made their moves.

Is this a problem that has already been solved?
 
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