Are equal % moves equally profitable in different pairs?

kenazen · Dec 10, 2005

Is a 0.1% move in the EUR/USD as profitable as a 0.1% move in (say) EUR/JPY?

I'm tracking 15 pairs with an automated system, and am trying to figure out which moves in the different pairs are the most profitable. This is using qoutes from Metatrader4.

Allegedly this will allow me to ride the winners and cut the losers.

riskarb · Dec 10, 2005

Google "fx variable pip" and you'll get your answer.

kenazen · Dec 10, 2005

Quote from riskarb:

Google "fx variable pip" and you'll get your answer.

Where do you think Google gets it's answers?

uninvited_guest · Dec 10, 2005

Quote from kenazen:

Allegedly this will allow me to ride the winners and cut the losers.

Easier said than done.

GBP/USD and EUR/USD will give you all the voltility you need. Tracking 15 pairs might bog you down.

KISS = Keep It Simple Stupid

kenazen · Dec 10, 2005

Quote from uninvited_guest:

Easier said than done.

GBP/USD and EUR/USD will give you all the voltility you need. Tracking 15 pairs might bog you down.

KISS = Keep It Simple Stupid

I have historical data on the various pairs, and a way to get to get daily updates - so now I "just" need to find something that works.

I will be scouring through the historical data looking for clues. If it turns out I dont need to track everything, I wont. If it turns out I do, I will. Hopefully it wont!

At least with using automated systems I don't personally have to analyze all the data, just the system itself.

Lights · Dec 10, 2005

my eur/usd pair will continue to be profitable.

Quote from kenazen:

Is a 0.1% move in the EUR/USD as profitable as a 0.1% move in (say) EUR/JPY?

I'm tracking 15 pairs with an automated system, and am trying to figure out which moves in the different pairs are the most profitable. This is using qoutes from Metatrader4.

Allegedly this will allow me to ride the winners and cut the losers.

uninvited_guest · Dec 10, 2005

Quote from Lights:

my eur/usd pair will continue to be profitable.

Not much information.

kenazen · Dec 11, 2005

So, a +1% move in one pair is not equitable to a +1% move in another pair? I understand that the $ value of a single pip is not equitable.

uninvited_guest · Dec 11, 2005

Quote from kenazen:

So, a +1% move in one pair is not equitable to a +1% move in another pair?

Yes that is correct.......unless both pairs have the same base/quote (GBP/USD) values.

MarketMafia · Dec 11, 2005

There is a thing name " Correlation". I think it will answer your question.