Quote from aaainthebeltway:
Frankly, I have never really understood this and still don't, even though I know the above is correct. How can you have different Probabilities for the same event for the next throw?
Because you are looking at the same event in different contexts.
The probability of the coin landing on heads ten times in a row is relatively small. The probability of this happening is made up of a series of events occurring. That is, the probability of the coin landing on heads, once, twice, thrice, four times, and so on. The key is, you have to bring all these events together and look at them as a series, rather than each being a separate throw. So, that is why the probability of flipping heads ten times in a row is so low.
The other question is what is the probability of flipping heads on the tenth try, after all the previous ones have been heads? The answer is 1/2, or 50%. Assuming the coin is fair, there are only two outcomes, heads being one, tails, the other. No matter what has happened during the series, the chance of the tenth flip being a head is 50%. Here we are not looking at the flip in a series, but as an independent event. The key phrase in this instance is "tenth try". We are looking at one event, not a series.
Also,
To MACD - The outcomes are both mutually exclusive and independent of previous trials. Mutually exclusive, because you can have either heads or tails, but not both (assuming the coin cannot land on its side). Independent of previous trials, because the coin does not have a "memory", means the outcomes prior to the current trial have no influence on the current trial (thereby leading to the inference of a 50/50 chance of heads or tails on any given flip).
Additionally, that most people would "bet tails" is a gambler's fallacy. That is, since it has been heads nine times in a row, the tenth flip "has got to come up tails". The chance of heads on any one throw is no different than any other.
I think this is correct. And, I hope this helps.