So i have heard this over and over and would like to clarify the issue.
It is said that one who trades blindly has a 50% chance of their trade being in the money. To succeed one would need a 10% advantage, (or have risk to reward ratios that are equivilant)
If I have a profit target of 100 points and a stop of 50 points it is not a 50 50 chance I will have profit. it is much more likely that my 50 point stop gets hit.
Think about a 1000 point target and a 10 point stop. there is no 50 50 here or we would all be rich.
As one tries to get better ratios it becomes harder to win and one accumulates more losses. The amazing thing is that it SEEMS that no matter how you play with the numbers there is no edge.
I am wondering if any one knows any of the math behind this. Is it linear ?
It is said that one who trades blindly has a 50% chance of their trade being in the money. To succeed one would need a 10% advantage, (or have risk to reward ratios that are equivilant)
If I have a profit target of 100 points and a stop of 50 points it is not a 50 50 chance I will have profit. it is much more likely that my 50 point stop gets hit.
Think about a 1000 point target and a 10 point stop. there is no 50 50 here or we would all be rich.
As one tries to get better ratios it becomes harder to win and one accumulates more losses. The amazing thing is that it SEEMS that no matter how you play with the numbers there is no edge.
I am wondering if any one knows any of the math behind this. Is it linear ?