all the talk about maximum percentage is useless for the trader and in fact misleading because most read it exactly how OP read it and logically so
but most importantly: without working method what this rule does is just determines the speed at which account goes down the drain .. then why 2%, not 1%?
any working method of any functional trader that works for a living can be retrospectively examined and the average rate of risk per trade (percentage wise off the account size) can be determined, that what i expected he was talking about
and if compared they probably are with certain limits (i do not know which) , but lets assume it is not more than X %
but even then this X% has as much meaning as the average temperature in the hospital - it does not say to a wannabe trader if he is alive with his method or a working dead
====As far as I can tell, he never uses the maximum acceptable loss in $ or % to locate the stop-loss on the chart====
but that exactly what follows form his rule, and that is why OP is asking