There's smart money, there's dumb money, then there is @TanukiTrade who thinks that
"Put Skew ... indicates the market is anticipating a downward movement"
:banghead::banghead::banghead:
You seem to have drunk the TastyTrade Kool-Aid ... and yes ... the TastyTrade calculations of Expected Move are Mathematical Diarreah ...
Happy to be proved wrong if you can answer these 2 questions:
1. Why, for a Stock with same Spot/Vol, but different strike widths (say 99-100-101 v...
Except none of your methods are mathematically coherent or consistent with any realised/implied volatility, particularly as you seem to extrapolate the Expected Move analysis over a 6 month+ foward window ... which just increases the error factor
Why not use an Expeced Range that is "implied"...
If you want to get a better understanding of Option Implied Probability Distributions, it is worth digging through some of the following
Natenberg:
Morgan Stanley:
Mean Absolute Deviation v Standard Deviation:
Option Implied Probabilities...
#2 Binary Expected Move
Next on the chopping board of brain-dead ways to calculate "Expected Move" is the Binary Expected Move inspired by the option-goons at TastyTrade
You say the calculation of is
Multiply the price of the ATM straddle by 0.6.
Multiply the price of the first OTM strangle...
Let's work through your various "Expected Move" Calculations and see if they are of any real practical use
#1 Standard Expected Move
You say, the 1 Standard Deviation Move (1STD) = Spot x impliedVol x Sqrt(Days/365)
For the example I used this would result in
1 STD = 100 x 100% x...
Here's the challenge to illustrate whether any of the 4 methods you have chosen are useful ...
Calculate the 1,2 and 3 Standard Deviation moves for a stock with
Spot Price = 100
ImplVol = 100%
TimeToExp = 365 Days
100 ATM Straddle = 76.60
95/105 OTM Strangle = 71.70
90/110 OTM Strangle = 66.95
Mathematical Diarhea !!
************************************
BEM Calculation (the TastyTrade Method)
The Binary Expected Move is calculated using a weighted sum of the ATM straddle price and the prices of the first and second Out-Of-The-Money (OTM) strangles.
Multiply the price of the ATM...
KrisA is a former SIG trader who shares plenty of trdaing insights and currently building tools for retail option traders
@KrisAbdelmessih
https://moontower.substack.com/
https://www.moontower.ai/
https://blog.moontower.ai/
Seems as an odd structure (DITM +Call / ATM +Put / OTM -Call) when you could just
Buy ATM/OTM Call Spread
+ earn int on balance investment
Unless some form of tax arb ?