Quote from ByLoSellHi:
So, it does not indicate any material threat to FMDs current cash reserve or liquidity, if I'm interpreting it correctly. That cash is already in the till, as will Goldman's end of June additional cash injection be.
Thats right. I'm just thinking that opex is going to be a pressure on cash right now. So any revenue stream they are entitled to is a worthwhile component of value of the company, more significant than the cash alone.
Their future revenue stream is entirely discounted to 0 already. Its kind of bizarre. That TERI insurance is make or break to the residuals obviously. That is why I've been so persistent to find out what the *real* cashflow story is .. ie, what are the outstanding securitizations paying versus what FMD is collecting?? What is the margin? If it is negative, who is taking that risk? Of course that comes out of residuals.
With the ARN model, it looks like FMD or some proxy party holds monthly renewable debt to float to match changing LIBOR rates (which is what FMD collects + their profit spread). The wider the margin between cost of money and total interest collected is clearly by that above text an impact to residual.
So 1) Can FMD have negative residual from being stuck paying old high interest debt? (Remember, the lower the fed and LIBOR rates go, the worse this gets for FMD as long as the auction rate market is not performing, since TERI is SOL).
2) Or are the dealers stuck with the potential losses?
Imagine this:
FMD refloats 80% (just for this example, i don't know the actual # off the top of my head) of its past securitizations monthly. Its stuck right now (or a representing bank is) paying 6% yield on all of its securitizations right now, to investors. It can't reset to current yields (lets say 3.5%?) because TERI won't back the short term payments to ARN holders.
At the same time, its collecting current 1M libor + 250bp from its students. That is 2.7 + 2.5 = 5.2%.
You see what I'm getting at here? Someone (FMD? or Banks running the securitization?) is paying 6% for money only to collect 5.2%. The mere existence of these loans is a losing proposition for somebody until that TERI guarantee returns.
This is why I asked all of the questions before. Because even if this stuff is on somebody else's balance sheet, it significantly affects FMD's bottom line. How do you get residuals out of nowhere? Anyone know these actual #s?