Hi guys! I am new to this board and relatively new to options trading. I have a trade idea but I do not know if it is possible. I would love to read your feedback!
I would like to buy a stock with cash that has an annual dividend yield that covers the cost of a 1 year put (slightly otm). I then want to write weekly, or longer, covered calls on the underlying stock (depending on the situation). If the underlying stock gets assigned, what happens to the long put? If I buy back the shares in open market, rinse and repeat, will my long put protect these new shares?
If the last sentence is true, it seems like it does not matter if I write slightly otm covered calls at lower strike prices than my original cost basis. Since my long put is higher than the new shares I purchase at the lower price, wouldn't I still benefit from the right to sell the shares at the higher strike price via the long put? And if the opposite occurs and there is a bull run, wouldn't I benefit from having the protective put in the event of a market crash?
Am I seeing this the right way? In practice does it actually work this way? Or am I way off? I understand there are position management considerations, nuances, etc. I'm wondering if this could work in theory?
Thx for the input!
I would like to buy a stock with cash that has an annual dividend yield that covers the cost of a 1 year put (slightly otm). I then want to write weekly, or longer, covered calls on the underlying stock (depending on the situation). If the underlying stock gets assigned, what happens to the long put? If I buy back the shares in open market, rinse and repeat, will my long put protect these new shares?
If the last sentence is true, it seems like it does not matter if I write slightly otm covered calls at lower strike prices than my original cost basis. Since my long put is higher than the new shares I purchase at the lower price, wouldn't I still benefit from the right to sell the shares at the higher strike price via the long put? And if the opposite occurs and there is a bull run, wouldn't I benefit from having the protective put in the event of a market crash?
Am I seeing this the right way? In practice does it actually work this way? Or am I way off? I understand there are position management considerations, nuances, etc. I'm wondering if this could work in theory?
Thx for the input!