Quote from gnome:
I can understand a mortgage being non-recourse if there were 30-50% down (as is common with commercial RE).
But with no money down (or even only 5%) and no recourse in default, what in the world would induce a lender to make such a loan? Sounds crazy.
Perhaps you can shed some light?
Gnome:
Did you read my post about mortgages in California?
A lender who makes a no money down, purchase money loan in California cannot seek a deficiency judgment. Period. That's what the California law states. A lender cannot seek a deficiency judgement on any purchase money loan.
The only loan a lender can seek a deficiency judgment on in California is a non-purchase money loan ie a refinance. BUT, IF they want to seek a deficiency judgement, they cannot foreclose non-judicially via the deed of trust. Instead, they have to go to court to foreclose. That is a 1-2 year process in California. It is very unikely to happen most of the time.
Any loan in California that is foreclosed non-judicially via deed of trust, whether it is purchase money or otherwise, the lender may not seek a deficiency judgment.
Crazy on the lenders part? Probably. But that's the California law. Lenders have all been down this road before...it was the same law in 1990...the last time this happened. Borrowers simply mailed the keys in for their houses, and walked away.
OldTrader

