Wouldn't it be the settlement price at EOD?
What is the settlement price? It's not a futures contract, so idk what that means.
Wouldn't it be the settlement price at EOD?
Normally the closing/settlement price (of the stock) used to determine automatic exercises of options (which can still be overridden) is based on a closing auction on the primary exchange. The question here is what price is used as this is now traded OTC.What is the settlement price? It's not a futures contract, so idk what that means.
You also said this If it's above, you won't be which is incorrect.
Maybe I'm missing something. You claim that it has nothing to do with the bid/ask, but is based on market price?
To me, market price IS the bid OR the ask OR the midpoint. What else could it possibly be?
So it's 10 call.
bid is 9.99, ask is 10.02, so what is the market price?
OMG!!! In general sense like 99.99999999% of the case, if the strike is above the market price of the underlying, the short call won't get assigned. Yes once in a very blue moon, you are going to get an idiot noob or somebody who's drunk or somebody who really wants to get their hands on the underlying and just can't get it in the stock market due to restrictions (like with the GME stock restriction) or some other odd/special reasons who's going to exercise an OTM call but generally in won't happen. Jesus!
It's not just the close price that matters. What happens in the aftermarket can also affect whether the option is assigned or not. If XYZ closes at 99.90, but trades above 100 in the aftermarket (which can frequently happen), someone who is long the DTE 0 XYZ 100 put with the plan to let it exercise, might tell their broker to not exercise if they can get a better price in the aftermarket.