A question for current and former options market-makers (MM): Why such wide bid-ask spreads on ITM options? For example, let's say two strikes in-the-money with two months until expiration. For stocks under $50, I've noticed spreads tend to be 15 to 20 cents, and 20 cents and higher for stocks between $50 and $100.
With penny spreads on the underlying stocks, I would think that MMs could immediately hedge with stock to offset their ITM option position, and handle this transaction very efficiently without demanding a large spread on the option. In this case, low volume and low open interest on the ITM option should not matter much, since they are hedging with stock and relying on the liquidity of the underlying.
Do MMs hedge with stock BEFORE they accept your option order (so they know with certainty that they can acquire the stock), or do they hedge after they process your option trade?
Could the high delta on the ITM option create a risk for the MM that the underlying will make a really fast move before they hedge? Is this risk the reason for the wide bid-ask spread?
Any insights appreciated. I'm just speculating! (bad pun)
With penny spreads on the underlying stocks, I would think that MMs could immediately hedge with stock to offset their ITM option position, and handle this transaction very efficiently without demanding a large spread on the option. In this case, low volume and low open interest on the ITM option should not matter much, since they are hedging with stock and relying on the liquidity of the underlying.
Do MMs hedge with stock BEFORE they accept your option order (so they know with certainty that they can acquire the stock), or do they hedge after they process your option trade?
Could the high delta on the ITM option create a risk for the MM that the underlying will make a really fast move before they hedge? Is this risk the reason for the wide bid-ask spread?
Any insights appreciated. I'm just speculating! (bad pun)