I own some ratio put protected stock (more long puts than stock). I want to keep the stock and roll my puts down 5 points, lowering my cost basis. However, the spread on the higher strike put is Holland Tunnel wide. I would like to know:
1) Fair value of the June $45 put?
XYZ = $39.15
June 45p is $8.40 x $9.00
June 45c is $$1.65 x $1.80
Ex-div is 3/10 for 71 cents (two dividends by exp)
Based on the midpoint of the $45 call, what is fair value of the $45 put? Can you also show me the calculation?
2) This part is giving me a royal headache. As an alternative, if I place a combo spread order to roll the $45 puts down and MM won't give me the value calculated above (ignoring splitting the B/A on the $40p), I might be able to get around the wide $45p spread by using a long stock collar and transacting with the two options with much narrower spreads?
IOW, the long 45p is equiv to shorting the stock and buying the Jun $45c. So if I sell the covered call and buy Jun $40 puts then I end up with initial shares, new shares, short $45c and long $40p and that's equivalent to rolling the $45p down. Is this correct? I realize that there's more slippage but if I can't roll directly, I still want to execute this. I have no problem tying up the cash, likely unwinding some of this when volatility settles down.
Other suggestions welcome too.
TIA
1) Fair value of the June $45 put?
XYZ = $39.15
June 45p is $8.40 x $9.00
June 45c is $$1.65 x $1.80
Ex-div is 3/10 for 71 cents (two dividends by exp)
Based on the midpoint of the $45 call, what is fair value of the $45 put? Can you also show me the calculation?
2) This part is giving me a royal headache. As an alternative, if I place a combo spread order to roll the $45 puts down and MM won't give me the value calculated above (ignoring splitting the B/A on the $40p), I might be able to get around the wide $45p spread by using a long stock collar and transacting with the two options with much narrower spreads?
IOW, the long 45p is equiv to shorting the stock and buying the Jun $45c. So if I sell the covered call and buy Jun $40 puts then I end up with initial shares, new shares, short $45c and long $40p and that's equivalent to rolling the $45p down. Is this correct? I realize that there's more slippage but if I can't roll directly, I still want to execute this. I have no problem tying up the cash, likely unwinding some of this when volatility settles down.
Other suggestions welcome too.
TIA