why volatility is not Markovian

In Markov chain, all states must be defined and steady state must be reached in order to get meaningful results. It would impossible to define all the states of the market let alone define the model. One thing for sure is the price change is normally distributed and we often hear reversion to the mean.

price_change_distribution.jpg
 
Brownian motion is a well-known Markov process.
But why is then volatility of the same supposed to be not Markovian?
Hmm. I think volatility must be Markovian as well.

https://www.britannica.com/science/probability-theory/Markovian-processes
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Markovian processes
A stochastic process is called Markovian (after the Russian mathematician Andrey Andreyevich Markov) if at any time t the conditional probability of an arbitrary future event given the entire past of the process — i.e., given X(s) for all s t — equals the conditional probability of that future event given only X(t). Thus, in order to make a probabilistic statement about the future behaviour of a Markov process, it is no more helpful to know the entire history of the process than it is to know only its current state. The conditional distribution of X(t+h) givenX(t) is called the transition probability of the process. If this conditional distribution does not depend on t, the process is said to have “stationary” transition probabilities. [...]
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