I purchase 200 shares of stocks from March 2008 to May 2009, and its basis is nearly 40,000 for the 200 shars, and I sold all of these in March 16 2010 for 45,000, having a gain of 5,000. Then I bought it back in the same day,but my broker is showing that it is a wash sale, that really confused me, I used FIFO, and sold it at a gain of 5000, which is not a loss, why does it trigger a wash sale when rebuying the same stocks after sold at a gain ?
Can anyone shed some light on this? Thanks in advance.
Can anyone shed some light on this? Thanks in advance.