Option pricing models such as Black-Scholes and binomial lattice do not factor in trend reversals (i.e., stock price reversing). There is no variable for drift.
They may not factor it in directly in the model, but it does emulate it via the drop in IV from otm to itm.
I am referring to options pricing factoring in the probability of a drop in IV after an expected move, which they do via the skew. For example the MARA 20 strike call is 1.06 (104.61%) and the atm strike is 2.07 (101.78%). Even though the atm is more expensive, it is less expensive relative to what you paid for the 20 strike.