Sorry if this is a no brainer question for some of you. I have been studying options for the last couple of weeks and noticed that on some stocks the delta to option price ratio is higher on the OTM than the ITM.
For example AAPL trading at $376.50
Oct 11 $375 Strike is $18.90 with a Delta of .54 & Imp Vol of 53.80%
(Only factoring Delta alone that is a 2.85% increase in option value for every $1 increase in underlying price)
vs
Oct 11 $435 Strike is $2.04 with a Delta of .11 & Imp Vol of 49.22%
(Only factoring Delta alone that is a 5.39% increase in option value for every $1 increase in underlying price)
Can someone clarify why this occurs?
For example AAPL trading at $376.50
Oct 11 $375 Strike is $18.90 with a Delta of .54 & Imp Vol of 53.80%
(Only factoring Delta alone that is a 2.85% increase in option value for every $1 increase in underlying price)
vs
Oct 11 $435 Strike is $2.04 with a Delta of .11 & Imp Vol of 49.22%
(Only factoring Delta alone that is a 5.39% increase in option value for every $1 increase in underlying price)
Can someone clarify why this occurs?