Hello guys, Rahula, Surf, Spike and the others,
plese consider this information about the markets: random or not:

1. If the market are random why they influance each another? For exapmpe there are planty of stocks, with very similar (same) patterns? Is it random? No. They are related (beta), i.e. they are not random.

2. Why the market react of news? If they are random they should behauve like they do just before the news? In forex you can see amaising things just after the news. This is not random. This prooves that the market are driven by phicology of mass of people.

3. The subjects who partisipate of the market are human beings (believe or not), nevertheless they do it with telephone call, contract, electronic platform, of computer program. People take desitions wich their brain , which means psicology. This is what drives the market. Is the pricology random? I don't think so. If you do not believe me, please try to go in your town with random desition (behaviour). Cross the streets randomly (withowt watching out). Ha ha ha. Random.

4. Are the markets random. See the Elder's chapter "are the markets effitient". He sais, and I fully agree with him that the markets are random at 95%. This is it. BUT at 5% they are not random. And this is exactly where the expirienced traders get theyr profit. This is not easy but this can be done.
5. Conserning your chart: I was amaised at the beginning. They were like a real chart. But not exactly. The thin diffrence is that the trends in the real markets and just 5% more stable and just 5% more prolonged. And this is eaxclty where the profit comes from. Otherwise the random looks like real chart, but it is not. It only looks like. If you do not believe me I can show you tasks from the time I was a schoolboy where diffrent order of triangles seemed to change the total surface of them. Is it possible. Not really. This only looked lke this.
Or I can proove you that 1=2 like this:
Let a=b, then
a*b = a2 (a2 is square of a);
a*b - b2 = a2 - b2 (we add same ammont (-b2) in both parties)
b*(a-b) = (a+b)*(a-b) , we remove the same multiplier (a-b) and
b=a+b;
a=a+a;
a=2*a (we remove the same multiplier (a) and
1=2.
That's it.
This is what proves your chart.
So finally I this what I put above looks very logical. But do I bevieve this at 100%. Not really, because I couldn't make profit from the markets. For me markets are still effitient. When I succeed to make consistent profit from this I'll believe it at 100%.
That's all folks.
Cheers!
