Quote from Don Bright:
There is a few pages on this in the regulations. But, I will summarize.
Take all the stock positions, long and short, and you must have the capital to cover them. So when you "give leverage" or allow the "use of capital" (as we do), then you must have enough $$ to cover everyone.
If you put up $25K, and yet "use" (as opposed to "abuse") capital of $1 million, then your firm must have enough $$ to cover all your positions. Many firms need to use all the other traders money to make this happen, some have adequate capital without it.
Don
Question for you. Maybe this was discussed elsewhere, but how can a firm (like yours) require people to put up $25k capital for 100% payout and give a million dollar leverage? My understanding is that when a firm pays out 100% they are retail and subject to 4:1 daytrading margin and 2:1 overnights. Is it simply a firm's willingness to eat trader's losses that makes it a prop firm??
Thanks in advance..
Lights
