Quote from the1:
My mistake. It's been a while since I've done TVM calc's but after a 2 min refresher I still disagree with your calculations. Correct me if you believe this is incorrect.
i = (FV/PV)^(1/n) -1
i = ((30/1)^(1/30)) -1
i = (30 ^ .0333) -1
i = 1.1199 -1
i = 12%, and therefore, not hyper-inflationary per your cite? If you disagree then we'll just agree to disagree to prevent the thread to turning into a debate on TVM calc's rather than the OP's topic.
In order to profit on 1, you must make 30, so FV/PV is 31/1, not 30/1. That would only be a profit of 29 or 2900%.
Even the 1.1199 would still be hyperinflationary as 1.12^3-1>25%.
