What is wrong with hyper inflation?

Quote from the1:

My mistake. It's been a while since I've done TVM calc's but after a 2 min refresher I still disagree with your calculations. Correct me if you believe this is incorrect.

i = (FV/PV)^(1/n) -1
i = ((30/1)^(1/30)) -1
i = (30 ^ .0333) -1
i = 1.1199 -1
i = 12%, and therefore, not hyper-inflationary per your cite? If you disagree then we'll just agree to disagree to prevent the thread to turning into a debate on TVM calc's rather than the OP's topic.

In order to profit on 1, you must make 30, so FV/PV is 31/1, not 30/1. That would only be a profit of 29 or 2900%.

Even the 1.1199 would still be hyperinflationary as 1.12^3-1>25%.
 
Agree with your 31 opposed to 30 but why are you raising 12% to a 3-1 power?

Quote from bwolinsky:

In order to profit on 1, you must make 30, so FV/PV is 31/1, not 30/1. That would only be a profit of 29 or 2900%.

Even the 1.1199 would still be hyperinflationary as 1.12^3-1>25%.
 
totally agreed the OP does not understand CHINA. what he knows of china is actually the top class of Chinese people, which may account for 10% of the total population.

the OP is very naive and simple.


Quote from number22:

Those people come from "upper social class" of China, they don't understand diddly-squat of modem economical theory, they are forced fed government propaganda all their life. They don't understand effects of price control on goods which produced by peasant migrate worker from country side.

Price control on vegetables, wheat, rice, cooking oil and etc has destroyed people's will to work for decent and legal wages, instead getting rich quickly schemes on their minds, moral standard has gone downhill, poisonous food and counterfeit goods are everywhere . Those people has little idea that inflation is root cause of infamous event in 1989. And yet, OP has the audacity to speak up his ignorance. This world is mad as hell.
 
lots of young people from china are so arrogant and illiterate, especially those from good families in cities. they do no know the historical of china, or the world. what they know is very limited to their surroundings. they do not even know that just 60 years back, it was hyperinflation that defeated the national party to the communist.

Quote from pspr:

China, obviously! :D
 
Yeah whats wrong with a wheelbarrow full of cash for some bread and eggs? What's wrong with a fixed income and/or lagging wages when cost of living rises exponentially every month?

I just don't see the problem :)


weimar-republic-chart-of-inflation-large.jpg



hyperinflation.jpg
 
hmmmm.....the way I was taught TVM is (1+R)^(1/n) gives you an annualized rate of growth that covers all years and no final adjustment is needed. As a simple example:

Going Forward: $1 PV, n=30 Years, i=10%. FV calculated to = $17.4494
Go Backward: $17.4494 FV, n=30 Years, i=10%, PV calculated to = $1
Figure Rate: $1 PV, $17.4494 FV, n=30 Yeas, i calculated to = 10%

No final adjustment is required here. Perhaps you are talking oranges and I'm apples? It seems like you are adding time by adding that final adjustment.

Quote from bwolinsky:

Compounding by 3 years even though it hits in 2.
 
Quote from the1:

hmmmm.....the way I was taught TVM is (1+R)^(1/n) gives you an annualized rate of growth that covers all years and no final adjustment is needed. As a simple example:

Going Forward: $1 PV, n=30 Years, i=10%. FV calculated to = $17.4494
Go Backward: $17.4494 FV, n=30 Years, i=10%, PV calculated to = $1
Figure Rate: $1 PV, $17.4494 FV, n=30 Yeas, i calculated to = 10%

No final adjustment is required here. Perhaps you are talking oranges and I'm apples? It seems like you are adding time by adding that final adjustment.

We were talking about the supposed example of a 3,000% inflation over the last 30 years. 17 would be a 1,644.94% profit, and the i is arbitrary.

In order to get the rate, you subtract 1 off, as it is your base, and that gives the APR. I'm not following the $17.4494 FV.

If cpi(t)/cpi(t-30)-1=3,000%, then the formula to get the apr of this price rise is the figure I computed.

(1+30)^(1/30)-1=12.127% and after every 3 years by definition any cpi rise of greater than 25% absolutely is the extent to which Chinese have supposedly experienced a rise in prices known as hyperinflation.

I seriously doubt that there is even accurate data to support this, and while I'm inclined to disagree that we have had the same rise, we can look up our bls stats and see I don't think the cpi has risen even close to that much in the US or China . You might say that our data is unreliable, but when it comes to debating whether or not a capitalist nation is more accurately reported than a corrupt communist nation then there is no question that it is in China's ruling party's best interest to ignore such statistics.
 
Quote from Due Buy:

You make an excellent point.

As we have calculated the rate of 12.127% annual inflation rate <b>this is considered a hyperinflationary period.</b>
 
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