As I said in my post, the prevailing nominal interest rate has to be a function of a) productivity/population growth rate (use real GDP as a proxy); and b) rate of inflation (in our stylized case, the growth of money supply). Let's say it's 5%. How do you arrive at over double the savings rate? What's the basis for double? Why not triple or quadruple? Why not half the savings rate? You're applying a completely arbitrary multiplier for no good reason... In contrast, the number I have given, arnd 100 - 300 basis points over the main rate, has held in the oldest, best regulated and most well-functioning mtge mkt in the world, Denmark.Quote from Buzzed:
You first have to figure out the fair interest rate on savings accounts. Will it be the fictional 5%? If it is 5% then the mortgage rate needs to be over double the savings rate. Otherwise, there would be no gain by risking money in a loan compared to a guaranteed 5% in a savings account. Remember, there is no longer a federal reserve, therefore banks can no longer lend 7 times more than they have. The ratio is now 1:1.
The mortgage rate now needs to be higher than 10% to support a 5% savings rate. With a 7:1 ratio, to support a 5% savings rate, the mortgage rate only needs to be 1.43% to get a net gain of 5%.
10-20% is very realistic.
As to the rest, I am totally baffled. What does 7:1 have to do with anything? When rates were at 5% in the US, were mtges at 1.43%?
10-20% is utterly silly... Why would I ever take out a loan with a 10-20% interest in a stable economy where, in equilibrium, I can never earn more than 5%?