Is it ever possible that the open interest is greater than the total number of shares floated? After all there's no limit to one opening to sell or opening to buy as long as there is a buyer or seller, so what if the total number of option contracts exceeds the available shares of a company floated? What happens.
Here's an e.g.
Floated shares 4 milllion and current price 10$.
Lets assume there are 30000 contracts at the 10 strike, 30000 contracts at the 8 strike, 30000 contracts at the 6 strike and 30000 at the 4 strike, all Put side.
Thats 12million shares, so if the price plummets to say 3$ all contracts are in the money so how will the market satisfy them?
Here's an e.g.
Floated shares 4 milllion and current price 10$.
Lets assume there are 30000 contracts at the 10 strike, 30000 contracts at the 8 strike, 30000 contracts at the 6 strike and 30000 at the 4 strike, all Put side.
Thats 12million shares, so if the price plummets to say 3$ all contracts are in the money so how will the market satisfy them?
, he will exercise and realize he's massively short... can't borrow the stocks and get's a buy-back call from his bank... entering a huge short squeeze and lose his shirt because the stock hits 30, 40... 50 whatever is there... (google volkswagen short squeeze)