Quote from L-Kabong:
It doesn't seem so. But the pill can be an abortifacient if fertilization occurs during its use. The pill can suppress ovulation but not always. It can cause changes within the woman that impede conception but does not always prevent conception. It disrupts implantation, and in the end, fools the body into not recognizing an incipient pregnancy. Menstruation occurs, and an embryo, if present, is aborted.
I'd like to know how those who regard abortion as murder view the use of the pill. In cases of conception, is it "murder" also? If so, that's logically consistent. If not, then why not and at what point in a pregnancy does a terminated pregnancy constitute the murder of a baby?