Suppose you short some a stock over an ex-date when the stock has a spinoff of non-tradable shares of another company (or some non-transferrable contingent valuation rights, etc.)
I guess the brokers typically would call in the borrow before the ex-date. But if they did not, then you the borrower would be liable for the distribution. There is no place you can buy such spun-off shares (or CVRs). And nobody knows what is the fair cash-in-lieu amount.
What happens in this situation, for those who borrowed the shares and those who lent?
I never ran into this situation, but always wondered. Anyone knows the answer?
I guess the brokers typically would call in the borrow before the ex-date. But if they did not, then you the borrower would be liable for the distribution. There is no place you can buy such spun-off shares (or CVRs). And nobody knows what is the fair cash-in-lieu amount.
What happens in this situation, for those who borrowed the shares and those who lent?
I never ran into this situation, but always wondered. Anyone knows the answer?