Hello. What happens when consumer credit outstanding is larger than M1 money supply? When I look at the Fed data it shows that "consumer credit outstanding is about 2.5 trillion but M1 is only about 1.4 trillion. (I hope I read these figures correctly.)
I use M1 because I would think that M1 is the more significant measure (instead of M2 or M3) because M2 includes CDs (certificate of deposits) and other large moneys. My figuring is that people with outstanding "consumer credit" do not usually possess CDs or large denominations of money. Therefore M1 (cash, coins, and checking deposits) is most significant.
What does this mean? Does it mean that unless the M1 money supply is "inflated" to 2.5 trillion then there is effectively zero chance that these debts can be paid off? Or perhaps I should be thinking in terms of a different money supply?
money supply:
http://www.federalreserve.gov/releases/h6/current/default.htm
consumer credit:
http://www.federalreserve.gov/releases/g19/current/default.htm
I use M1 because I would think that M1 is the more significant measure (instead of M2 or M3) because M2 includes CDs (certificate of deposits) and other large moneys. My figuring is that people with outstanding "consumer credit" do not usually possess CDs or large denominations of money. Therefore M1 (cash, coins, and checking deposits) is most significant.
What does this mean? Does it mean that unless the M1 money supply is "inflated" to 2.5 trillion then there is effectively zero chance that these debts can be paid off? Or perhaps I should be thinking in terms of a different money supply?
money supply:
http://www.federalreserve.gov/releases/h6/current/default.htm
consumer credit:
http://www.federalreserve.gov/releases/g19/current/default.htm
