Quote from StarDust9182:
I don't mean to offend you (or anyone), just to get to the economic truth as I can understand it.
My own first response to your reply was what a silly answer, what can divorce have to do with a major economic change? But I have read past good posts from you, I thought I would check it out. Some research has produced an anomaly.
First, I read a comment years ago about what fundamentally caused the subprime mess. The author claimed it was the Equal Rights Amendment. Of course, digging into the article, it was not the equal rights part (who can logically argue that?) but the implementation of that policy by the government. The article claimed that the government originally mandated 2% of loans be given by banks to people who would not normally qualify. (Banks don't want to lose capital on risky ventures, and governments don't care since they are not spending their own money) Quietly, slowly, but surely that percentage rose to be 20%? of new loans ( if I recall correctly), set by congress in the name of equality. At least that is what the article claimed.
The banks not being stupid, packaged the risk parts and sold it to others who were stupid with the help of a non-functioning (AKA captured) regulatory system and tacit government approval since they followed their policy orders. That is what the article explained. I wish I still had the link.
Now, to quickly disprove Nutmeg's comment, I thought to myself what was the biggest economic factor of a higher divorce rate. My first reply was more women entering the workforce. So I researched for a chart to show no correlation to recessions and found this gem:
http://research.stlouisfed.org/fred2/series/EMRATIO/
There is more at http://research.stlouisfed.org/publications/es/article/9622
This chart seems to show a correlation that something indeed changed around 1975. Digging further I found a section under http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Women_in_the_workforce in the section "Laws protecting women's rights as workers" stating that" In 1966, the United Nations General Assembly adopted the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights, which went into force in 1976."
Wowee! Could this be a repeated story? More research needs to be done.
The US St Louis chart shows an anomaly. Less families, more women entering the workforce. I remember women's
rights being a big driver of government policy then and hearing that some western governments had quietly passed laws identifying UN laws as superceeding their own country's laws. Productivity was the big watchword then as I recall - if you want higher wages, then produce more and your pay will go up. That has all changed.
To enforce the UN policies, I think government would have to increase its size. The market would eventually pay for productivity and if wages fell, then socialism would seem to be required - that is "The market is wrong so we will fix it through legislation". That is doomed to failure in the very long run I think.
Is this a similar case as the article I read about the subprime mess - Government policy trying to change
market forces (AKA reality) by passing laws? Has the quality of productivity in workers declined causing a slow but steady bankrupcy due to bad government policy?
Can anyone point to the flaws in my line of reasoning. I find the correlation eerie.
I have seen this claimed many times, i.e., it was government policy to make these sub prime loans. And of course one can then extrapolate back to the equal rights amendment if so inclined.
Actually this policy to make loans more accessible was a very good policy that had nothing whatsoever to do with the subprime crisis, though I wouldn't put it past an entity like Countrywide to try to use that argument as a plaintiff. It's not going to carry much weight in court however.
It was never intended nor directed that loans be made to those obviously incapable of repaying them. What happened is that in some communities banks were simply uninterested in making loans to certain minorities. After the government stepped in, they began making these loans, but to their regular underwriting standards for sub prime, thus these loans were correctly rated as subprime, had a somewhat higher default rate, and a somewhat higher interest rate, though government subsidies may have been involved in some cases.
This was in the early days before the ties between those making loans and those holding the loans were totally severed.
Originally S&P used a rating for securitized loans that properly took into account the subprime content. Experience had revealed the expected rate of default. S&P knew the default rate and the subrpime content of the packaged loans and correctly rated them.
After the major investment banks realized how much more attractive CDO's were than unsecuritized mortgage bonds they got very interested in promoting CDO sales. They were selling like hot cakes as long as they could get a decent rating. The I.B.'s needed more product to sell. They made money available through mortgage closers like Country Wide who would close the loan for a fee and immediately sell it to an entity that was going to package it, i.e., securitize it, like an I.B. for example, with other loans and the various package components, after rating, would then be hawked to eager buyers around the world.
There was tremendous demand and money to be made. When S&P rated the resulting CDO's they assumed incorrectly that the quality of the subprime content was the same as it had been previously. They did not realize that those closing the loans were completely abandoning underwriting standards just to make a quick buck. The closers had no skin in the game and apparently no one told S&P that there were now a bunch of liar loans included in these packages. Naturally the default rate was now above what it should have been for subprime. They should have done due diligence, but they did not. They just assumed those subprimes were the same as subprimes had always been. Big mistake!
The government never asked nor required that anyone make a loan to someone who could not repay, or to someone without documented income. And no reasonable person in government would assume that someone could walk into a closer with no documentation and walk out with a loan!
The government is responsible in one respect however. Greenspan was told, repeatedly actually, two to three years before the crisis hit, that loans were being made without proper documentation, and he did absolutely nothing about it. He was the chief regulator, but he did not believe in regulation. He thought market forces would take care of matters. He also believed in what economists call equilibrium theory. Essentially its the idea that markets spontaneously will tend toward balance or equilibrium. Well, it turns out he was both right and wrong at the same time. Market forces will take care of matters, and in the end they did! But markets don't tend toward equilibrium, they tend to move further from equilibrium! So when the market decided to take care of matters it was far from equilibrium, and then the shit hit the fan. That is of course when the Treasury and Fed stepped in and circumvented the spontaneous path the market would have otherwise taken in "self-correcting". I wasn't pretty, but it could have been much worse if the market had been left solely to its own devices, as Greenspan used to advocate before he got religion.
